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Practicetest BH0-010 ISTQB it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true?

A. A test condition specifies input values and expected results; a test case combines one or more
test conditions
B. A test condition may be derived from requirements or specifications; a test procedure specifies
the sequence of action for the execution of a test
C. A test case specifies the sequence of execution of test conditions; a test procedure specifies
test pre-conditions and post-conditions
D. A test case specifies input values and expected results; a test procedure may be derived
from requirements or specifications

Answer: B



QUESTION 2
Which two of the following are common attributes of maintenance testing?

a) It is carried out to ensure that the system will be reliable once in service.
b) It includes regression testing.
c) It requires the use of fully defined specifications.
d) It can include testing of a system after migration from one platform to another.

A. a and b
B. a and c
C. c and d
D. b and d

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following



How many MORE test cases are required?

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used
to provide 100% decision coverage
C. None, existing test cases can be used
D. One more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage

Answer: C



QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?

A. To assess if the test tool brings benefits at reasonable cost
B. To ensure that developers will use the test tool
C. To ensure that the time spent testing and the cost of testing is reduced
D. To assess if everyone in theorganisation can be trained prior to roll-out

Answer: A

Practicetest BH0-010 ISTQB it-exams

Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams

BCP-211 Supporting BlackBerry Devices in an Enterprise Environment our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
.A BlackBerry device user is trying to upgrade her version of BlackBerry Device Software and wants to verify that the latest version of BlackBerry Device Software has been installed on her computer. Which two methods will help determine what version of BlackBerry Device Software is currently installed on the computer? (Choose two.)

A. Open Add or Remove Programs > Select the BlackBerry Device Software
for the BlackBerry device model > Select Click here for Support Information
B. Open Microsoft Windows Device Manager > Expand RIM Device > Right-click on BlackBerry Device > Select Properties
C. Launch BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Select Help > SelectAbout Desktop Manager > Select the Device Software tab
D. Run GETBBVERSION.EXE from the command prompt
E. Open DEVICEINFO.INI from C.\Program files\ ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry

Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 2
.When the BlackBerry Smart Card Reader is in a pairing state, it displays the reader ID and the LED displays as which of the following? (Choose one.)

A. Flashing blue
B. Solid blue
C. Flashing green
D. Solid green
E. Flashing red
F. Solid red

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
.While a BlackBerry device user is attempting to synchronize data files, the following error
message is displayed. Online connection to your mail server is unavailable Which two actions will best resolve this error? (Choose two.)

A. Confirm that the BlackBerry device user has a valid connection to his work network.
B. Perform a cleanuninstall of BlackBerry Desktop Manager and upgrade to the latest version.
C. Confirm that the BlackBerry device is connected to BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. Check if the BlackBerry device user is able to send and receive email messages.
E. Contact the administrator of the BlackBerry device users messaging server to verify that services are functioning as expected.

Answer: A,E

Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams

Practicetest adwords-search Google it-exams

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adwords-search GoogleSearch Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest adwords-search Google it-exams


Q1. Which of the bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on clicks?

A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Automatic CPC bidding
D. Campaigns

Answer: C


Q2. Which of the following policies prohibits advertising if the business model is deemed unacceptable according to AdWords Terms and Conditions?

A. Link policies
B. Content policies
C. Quality policies
D. Editorial and format policies

Answer: B


Q3. Which of the following terms refers to the amount of time it takes for a user to view the landing page after clicking an ad?

A. Load time
B. Click-through rate
C. ROI
D. Quality score

Answer: A

Practicetest adwords-search Google it-exams

Practicetest adwords-reporting Google it-exams

adwords-reporting Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest adwords-reporting Google it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
When you begin to work with the Google Website Optimizer there are two essential pages you need to
identify. What are the two pages?
A. Landing page and conversion page
B. Landing page and conversion page
C. Test page and live page
D. Test page and conversion page
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
There are three primary goals for reporting and reviewing reports in Google Analytics according to Google.
Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of using Google Analytics?
A. Driving valuable traffic
B. Maximizing conversions of your website
C. Increasing web revenue
D. Decreasing unnecessary costs
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
You have a website that informs readers about your business, offers a newsletter signup form, allows
readers to purchase software online, and includes a "contact us" form so visitors can ask for more
information. Which conversion tracking purpose would be most appropriateyou’re your web page "contact
us" if you wanted to track statistics?
A. View of a key page
B. Other
C. Leads
D. Sign-ups
Answer: C

Practicetest adwords-reporting Google it-exams

Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams

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adwords-fundamentals Google Search Fundamentals Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams


QUESTION 1
You have a client that has reviewed a recent performance report you've supplied. The client wants to make several changes to the Google AdWords campaign. When can the changes be implemented?

A. On any day other than the day a billing cycle ends or starts
B. Any time outside of three days of a new billing cycle
C. Within seven days of a new billing cycle
D. Any time

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Consider an advertiser that is trying to sell more coffee beans. The advertiser has identified keywords for the ad groups: gourmet coffee beans, organic coffee beans, and French roast beans.
Which keyword wouldn't be a good choice to include in the ad group gourmet coffee beans?

A. Gourmet coffee
B. French roast coffee beans
C. Specialty coffee
D. Gourmet coffee beans

Answer: B　　


QUESTION 3
Jan creates a Google AdWords ad for her company. She wants to avoid showing her ad when users search for free, cheap, or crack. How can she do this with a keyword match type?

A. Jan will need to a broad match, but add the negative qualifier for each keyword she doesn't wantherad associated with.
B. Jan will need to create a negative match for the searched phrase that includes free, cheap, orrack.
C. Jan can only do this if she creates an exact match, in quotes, for every approved keyword.
D. Jan will need to create an exact match for the phrases she will allow her ad to be displayed with.

Answer: B

Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams

Practicetest adwords-display Google it-exams

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adwords-display Google Display Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest adwords-display Google it-exams


QUESTION 1
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have
image-editing software. Which of the following is the recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?

A. Use the Display Ad Builder.
B. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.

Answer: A



QUESTION 2
Why is it important for a Google AdWords ad on the Google Content Network to be marked as
Family Safe?

A. So that the ad would not be blocked by Google and Yahoo
B. To reduce the cost per click
C. Many Google Content Network partners only accept family safe ads
D. So that the images can show in search results

Answer: C



QUESTION 3
Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the
contextual targeting?

A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products
for sale so his ads will show on related Websites.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.

Answer: C

Practicetest adwords-display Google it-exams

Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams

A00-281 SAS Certified Clinical Trials Programmer Using SAS 9 Accelerated Version our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which CDISC standard is concerned with the development of simplified case report forms?
A. Clinical Data Acquisition Standards Harmonization (CDASH)
B. Operational Data Model (ODM)
C. Study Data Tabulation Model (SDTM)
D. Trial Design Model (TDM)

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
The purpose of the ADaM model is to provide a framework that:
A. enables the tabulation of the raw source data
B. enables the creation of study patient profiles
C. enables the statistical analysis of the data
D. can be used to generate the CDISC ODM

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Where would you store a value collected on a case report form but not defined in an SDTM domain?
A. RELREC
B. DM
C. SUPPQUAL
D. SC

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams

A00-260 SAS Data Integration Development our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A SAS administrator has performed the "Clear Projects" action to remove the lock on a SAS Data Integration Studio job called "Create Tables" that some user has checked out in their project repository. What will be the outcome of this action on the user's project repository?

A. It will become empty and all new and checked out metadata objects will revert to the not checked out state.
B. It will only contain the new metadata objects. All checked out metadata objects will revert to the not checked out state.
C. It will become empty and the DI job called "Create Tables" will no longer be in a checked out state.
D. It will become empty and will not be accessible until the administrator grants permissions for it to be used again.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement best describes the DataFlux Integration Server?

A. An application server that executes service requests based on Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to call dfPower Architect or dfPower Profile jobs.
B. A plug-in to SAS Data Integration Studio allowing you to design jobs specialized for data cleansing operations.
C. An application interface that allows you to builddfPower Architect and dfPower Profile jobs specialized for data cleansing operations.
D. A third party server defined in the SAS metadata repository that allows you to build flows integrating multiple jobs and establishing job dependencies within the flow.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
The purpose of change management in SAS Data Integration Studio is to manage:

A. metadata objects across metadata servers
B. metadata objects within a logged on user's personal folder
C. metadata objects within a metadata server
D. metadata objects within a logged on user's Checkouts Tree

Answer: C


Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-250 SAS it-exams

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A00-250 SAS Platform Administration for SAS9 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest A00-250 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A platform administrator used operating system commands to backup the metadata repositories and repository manager in a SAS environment. When the platform administrator attempted to restore the SAS environment, the backup files were unusable. What is the most likely cause of the backup files being unusable?

A. The metadata server was stopped when the backup was taken.
B. The metadata server was Online when the backup was taken.
C. The metadata server was only paused to an Offline state when the backup was taken.
D. The metadata server configuration file omaconfig.xml is not included in a backup initiated by operating system commands.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
A platform administrator needs to restore backup files to a running metadata server. Which macro can the platform administrator use to perform this task?

A. OMAREORG
B. OMARESTORE
C. OMACONFIG
D. OMABAKUP

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
The metadata server is stopped. What will be the result when operating system commands are used to backup the metadata repositories and repository manager?

A. The backup files will be unusable.
B. The backup files will not include metadata configuration files.
C. The backup files should be usable for a restore.
D. The backup files will include metadata configuration files only.

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-250 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams

A00-212 SAS Advanced Programming Exam for SAS 9 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.

Answer: B



QUESTION 2
The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below:
ONE TWO
# Variable Type Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8
1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16
1 year Num 8 0
Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR.
The following SAS program is submitted:
data three;
merge one two;
by year;
run;
Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?

A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.

Answer: B



QUESTION 3
Given the following SAS statement:

%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?

A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams

A00-211 SAS Base Programming for SAS 9 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What is the purpose or the MISSOVER option on the INFILE statement?

A. It prevents SAS from loading a new record when the end of the current record is reached.
B. It enables SAS to scan the input data records until the character string that is specified in the@‘character-string’ expression is round.
C. It enables SAS to continue to read the next input data record if it does not find values in the current input tine for all the variables in the statement.
D. It causes the DATA step to stop processing if an INPUT statement reaches the end of the current record without finding values for all variables in the statement.

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
set work.staff (keep = jansales febsales marsales);
array diff_sales{3} difsales1 - difsales3;
array monthly{3} jansales febsales marsales;
run;
What new variables are created?

A. JANSALES, FEBSALES and MARSALES
B. MONTHLY1, MONTHLY2 and MONTHLY3
C. DIFSALES1, DIFSALES2 and DIFSALES3
D. DIFF_SALES1, DIFF_SALES2 and DIFF_SALES3

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
What describes the SAS automatic _ERRDR_ variable?

A. The _ERROR_ variable contains the values ‘TRUE’ or ‘FALSE.’
B. The _ERROR variable maintains a count of the number of data errors.
C. The _ERROR_ variable can be used in expressions or calculations in the DATA step.
D. The ERROR_variable contains the number or the observation that caused the error.

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams

Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams

3600 Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
With release 4.0 or higher software on the Ethernet routing switch (ERS) 8300, an advanced routing license is required to enable certain features.
Which two statements ant true about the Advanced Routing License process and supported features for the ERS 8300? (Choose two.)

A. the Advanced Routing License supports QoS, SMLT, VRRP and OSPF
B. the Advanced Routing License supports SMLT, VRRP, OSPF, PIM-SM. and SLPP
C. To protect against security breaches, the ERS 8300 allows only a primary path for the license file
D. To protect against system flash failure, the ERS 8300 allows a primary, secondary, and tertiary path for the license file.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 2
Consider the fallowing port conditions on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8648GTRS
10/100/1000 Ethernet I/O module left LED -green Right LED - flashing green.
What is the status of the port?

A. The link speed is 100 Mbps. and the port is disabled.
B. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is disabled
C. The link speed is 100 Mbps. and the port is passing traffic.
D. The link speed is 1000 Mbps. and the port is passing traffic.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
A network has some Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 5500 switches licensed at the advanced level for Release 6 2 A technician implementing Protocol independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIMSM)
Which licensing requirement applies?

A. the PIM-SM is already covered by the existing advanced feature license
B. the PIM-SM con only be licensed on ERS 5510 models
C. the PIM-SM is included m the base license with release 6.2
D. A Premier license is needed

Answer: C

Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams

Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams

650-987 Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Sales Specialist Exam for SE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
How would you respond to an objection that a Cisco Unified Computing System solution is expensive and may not have a good ROI?

A. Competitive solutions use less physical cabling and thus have less redundancy.
B. Cisco UCS C-Series servers offer a cost-effective solution where customers buy only what they need, reducing upfront costs while offering integration possibilities in the future.
C. Cisco UCS C-Series servers allow easy integration with your existing server implementation by supporting legacy hardware such as RISC processors.
D. Cisco UCS C-Series servers reduce long-term TCO by storing excessive power in onboard batteries.

Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
With the Cisco UCS C-Series Servers, users experience a cost-effective solution, where they buy only what they need.
There is no need for addictional expenses and the upfront cost is reduced, while still offering integration possibilities in the future.


QUESTION 2
In a Cisco Unified Computing solution, which two actions are the easiest ways to increase connectivity throughput? (Choose two.)

A. Add additional Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect switches to the Cisco UCS cluster.
B. Move some servers into a separate Cisco UCS cluster.
C. Add additional servers in the Cisco UCS cluster.
D. Use additional uplinks on a Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module.
E. Use two Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O modules per chassis.

Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
Each IOM provides eight internal backplane ports, four external fabric ports, and one internal management network. An individual IOM is connected via a physical fabric port to the fabric interconnects server port, and via a logical backplane port through the chassis midplane to each individual server blade.


QUESTION 3
The Intelligent Network can play a vital role in which three networking environments? (Choose three)

A. storage networking
B. application networking
C. data networking
D. wide-area networking
E. security networking
F. media networking

Answer: ABC

Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-667 Cisco it-exams

650-667 Cisco SP Video Cable Access Networks Design Specialist for SE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-667 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What is the main difference between a video program in an ASI format versus a SDI format?

A. ASI contains only i program, SOI can contain multiple
B. ASI is a compressed format where SDI is uncompressed
C. ASI is over coax, SDI is not
D. SDI has audio channels

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following layers is the first layer in contribution solution architecture?

A. Optical network layer
B. The IP/MPLS core
C. The video adaptation layer
D. Customer Premises Layer

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
What is the primary advantage of MPEG-4 part 10 over MPEG-2?

A. MPEG 4 uses twice the bandwidth
B. MPEG 2 can have more programs
C. MPEG 2 can have less programs
D. MPEG 4 part 10 uses half the bandwidth

Answer: D

Practicetest 650-667 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-568 Cisco it-exams


650-568 Cisco Web Security Field Engineer Specialist our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-568 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which of these user ICAP?

A. anti-malware scanning
B. data loss prevention polices
C. decryption policies
D. CiscoIronPort Data Security policies

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
When do you need to configure the P1 interface?

A. whenever you have an upstream proxy
B. whenever you intend to deploy the L4TM in blocking mode
C. whenever you want to enable the WSA proxy
D. whenever you have a separate management VLAN orsubnetwork

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of these is a drawback in using McAfee heuristic scanning?

A. heuristic scanning cannot detect new malware with an unknown signature
B. heuristic scanning requires a separate license key
C. heuristic scanning increases the probability of false positives
D. heuristic scanning increases the probability of false negatives

Answer: C

Practicetest 650-568 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-378 Cisco it-exams


650-378 ABNFEE Advanced Borderless Network Field Engineer Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-378 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What is a powerful and flexible subsystem in Cisco IOS Software that provides real-time network event detection and onboard automation?

A. Cisco IOS EEM
B. Cisco IPS
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco ASA 5500 Series

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
What is a feature of Cisco Medianet?

A. It automates device configuration and registration.
B. It disables device asset tracking.
C. It allows manual configuration with SmartPorts.
D. It deploys complex access-switch QoS.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
What are the components of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network?

A. access points, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco Wireless Control System
B. access points, WAAS Express, Cisco Wireless Control System
C. Air Quality Index charts, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco Wireless Control System
D. access points, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco IronPort S-Series Web Security Appliance

Answer: A

Practicetest 650-378 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-196 Cisco it-exams

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650-196 SMB Solutions for Engineers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 650-196 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are competitive advantages of Cisco RV Series Routers? (Choose two.)

A. provide a port to connect a fax machine
B. easy-to-use simplified configuration GUI
C. enhanced features: VLANs, ACL, QoS, IPv6, and cloud services (some models)
D. embedded wireless included with all routers
E. ProtectLink Web included with all routers

Answer: C,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Which two options are requirements of a Cisco Catalyst switch customer? (Choose two.)

A. easy-to-use graphical user interfaces
B. price conscious
C. readiness to invest
D. Small Business Support Center support
E. multiple management options

Answer: A,E


QUESTION NO: 3
Which three options are characteristics of Cisco RV Series Routers? (Choose three.)

A. Browser-based configuration
B. Hosted security
C. Integrated voice mail
D. Survivable remote site telephony
E. Virtual private network connectivity
F. Wired and wireless versions

Answer: A,E,F

Practicetest 650-196 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-195 Cisco it-exams

650-195 SMBEN - SMB Solutions for Engineers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-195 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which combination of ports is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?
A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)
B. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXR and 4xFXO)
C. eight station ports (8xFXS)
D. two station ports (2xFXS)

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What three features that are included with the purchase of a Cisco SA 520? (choose three)
A. ProtectLink Gateway
B. DMZ
C. business-grade firewall
D. VPN capabilities
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco Small Business Pro Service

Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
Which three are components of the Cisco SMARTnet service? (Choose three.)
A. cases opened via e-mail or telephone at any time.
B. NBD callback from specialized engineers during regular business hours
C. advanced replacement on the next business day
D. Support for every Cisco product
E. support for low-end products only
F. immediate support from the Cisco TAC engineers

Answer: ACF

Practicetest 650-195 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-179 Cisco it-exams

650-179 SMB Solutions for Account Managers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-179 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two competitive voice advantages does the Cisco Unified Communications 300 Series have over typical key system solutions?

A. call conferencing
B. integrated wireless
C. programmable soft keys
D. speed dial and caller ID
E. voice mail to email notification
Answer: B,E


QUESTION NO: 2
What it the best way to get Cisco OnPlus up and running for a customer?

A. Set up user licenses.
B. Install the software.
C. Plug into a switch port.
D. Set up a dedicated PC

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Cisco Business Edition 3000 supports a centralized call processing deployment model, which means that one system can support a company central site and several remote sites, including the central sites can be supported?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15

Answer: C

Practicetest 650-179 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-177 Cisco it-exams

650-177 SMB Solutions for Account Managers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which three deployment scenarios does Cisco Configuration Assistant Support? (choose three)
A. Cisco SR500 in secure router mode, acting as a front end for Cisco Unified Communications 500
B. Cisco SR 500teleworker with Cisco Unified Communications 500 as VPN server
C. multi-site VPN with Cisco Unified Communications 500 platforms
D. centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager VE with Cisco Unified Communications500 in SRST mode
E. redundant Cisco Unified Communications 500 with primary-to-backup failover
F. Cisco Unified Communications 500 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk

Answer: A,C,F


QUESTION NO: 2

What are three ways in which wireless is cost-effective? (Choose three.)
A. Save time and money by avoiding labor-intensive moves,adds, and changes
B. Less expensive to purchase and maintain
C. Reduce monthly Internet access costs over wired installation
D. Enable your friends to access the Internet while waiting for you
E. allow employees to be mobile and increase their productivity
F. save in cabling costs for new or unwired buildings

Answer: A,E,F


QUESTION NO: 3

What are two benefits of clustered access points on a small business network using the Cisco 500 Series Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Rouge AP integration
B. Tri-band 11g single radios
C. Secure guest access
D. Single view to deploy and manage
E. Cisco IOS configuration

Answer: C,D

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Practicetest 650-148 Cisco it-exams

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650-148 ISSE Cisco IronPort Sales Specialist - Email our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 650-148 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
You have enabled LDAP to search a Microsoft 2003 AD server for valid mail addresses, which of the following two is a valid accept query? (Choose two.)

A. (|(Mail={a)(Proxyaddresses=smtp:fa}))
B. Maillocaladdress= smtp:{a}
C. (Proxyaddresses=smtp:{a})
D. Mailroutingaddress={a}
E. (Proxyaddresses={a})

Answer: C,D


QUESTION NO: 2
Which format must the x509 certificate be in for installing on an ESA?

A. PKCS
B. CRT
C. PEM
D. X500
E. CER

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
How would you configure the Recipient Access Table to accept all subdomains and the root domain mydomain.com?

A. Two entries: mydomain.com and '.mydomain.com
B. One entry: 'mydomain.com
C. One entry: mydomain.com
D. Two entries: mydomain.com and .mydomain.com

Answer: D

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Practicetest 650-153 Cisco it-exams

650-153 ESFE Cisco Email Security Field Engineer Specialist our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
CORRECT TEXT
A newly installed C-160 needs to have its access to downloads.ironport.com verified. Perform a port level test from the CLI of the C-160 by using the command string in lowercase with the appropriate port number.

A. telnetdownloads.ironport.com443

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following vendors produce Anti-Virus engines for the C-Series? (Choose two.)

A. Sophos
B. MCAfee
C. BrightMail
D. TrendMicro
E. Symantec

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 3
Membership in which sender group will cause the C-Series to skip checking the SMTP envelope's"rcpt to" field against the RAT?

A. RELAYLIST
B. WHITELIST
C. BLACKLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
E. UNKNOWNLIST

Answer: A
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Practicetest 646-985 Cisco it-exams

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646-985 Data Center Networking Solution Sales our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
You work as the network administrator at Company.com. Which of the following is correct if using the Cisco VFrame DC as a data center provisioning device?

A. Cisco VFrame DC can work only with the Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
B. Cisco VFrame DC can provision only network resources.
C. Cisco VFrame DC can work with VMware.
D. Cisco VFrame DC can work with the Catalyst 6500 Series Switches and the Nexus 7000 Series Switches but not with MDS.

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
You work as a Cisco engineer at Company.com. With your judgement, in the highly competitive networking switch market, which of the following can Cisco make that the competition cannot?

A. 10 Gigabit Ethernet is available on all switches and line cards, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks..
B. Cisco has blade server switches for both data networking and storage networking requirements.
C. Cisco has a commitment to using Ethernet as the backbone connection system for the data center.
D. Cisco supports modular switches and top-of-rack switches for both Gigabit Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks.

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You work as a Cisco engineer at Company.com. With your experience, which of the following description is the most closely one corresponding to a data center manager?

A. Data center manager is an alternative title for the chief technology officer and the person is responsible for all technology decision making in the data center.
B. Data center manager is a nonexecutive role and title that is found in all data centers and that tends to be administrative rather than technical.
C. The data center manager has technology decision-making authority within the data center, but the network team makes technology decisions after the connection leaves the immediate data center environment.
D. A specific, named role of data center manager might not exist, but the function and technical decision-making role almost certainly does.

Answer: D

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Practicetest 646-205 Cisco it-exams

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646-205 Cisco Sales Expert our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Network management saves time and money by automating which two tasks? (Choose two.)

A. Configuring changes to hardware and software
B. Monitoring online purchasing
C. Monitoring user access to storage files
D. Monitoring and troubleshooting network devices

Answer: AD



QUESTION 2
What is the Cisco collaboration per-person licensing option that simplifies purchasing and provides customers with maximum flexibility?

A. Cisco Unified Collaboration Licensing
B. Cisco Unified Communications Software Subscription
C. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
D. Cisco User Connect Licensing

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product is a software component that blocks unwanted connections and provides other gateway security functions for small business?

A. Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) Firewall
B. Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)
C. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
D. Cisco Private Internet Exchange (PIX) Firewall

Answer: A

Practicetest 646-205 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 642-993 Cisco it-exams

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642-993 Data Center Unified Computing Systems Design (DCUCD) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Virtual device contexts enable which three of these activities? (Choose three.)

A. secure delineation of administrative configurations
B. separation and distribution of hardware resources
C. ability to test configurations without impacting production systems
D. ability to run different operating systems on the same physical hardware
E. extension of link aggregation to two separate physical switches

Answer: A,B,C


QUESTION NO: 2
A jumbo frame-aware data center is often implemented to provide performance improvements in which two of these technologies? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fiber Channel
D. quality of service
E. VoIP

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which choice best describes NPV, with the connectivity of a Cisco UCS-B server connecting to a Fibre channel switch?

A. NPV allows a network-facing interface to proxy traffic from multiple servers onto a single link.
B. NPV allows local switching of Fibre Channel packets on the Cisco UCS 6100 Series Switches.
C. NPV load-balances traffic of a single server across multiple links.
D. NPV allows MAC-in-MAC encapsulation of Fibre Channel traffic for transport across a switch that is not a Cisco switch.

Answer: A

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Practicetest 642-741 Cisco it-exams

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642-741 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 642-741 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
What is the WMM user priority of the packets going downstream to the client when the client does not support TSPEC but the Cisco WLC has ACM enabled and WLAN priority is set to Platinum?

A. background
B. best effort
C. voice
D. video

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
When using simultaneous voice and multicast on a single WLAN and RF band, what is the recommended DTIM value of the WLAN for VoWLAN devices?

A. DTIM = 1
B. DTIM = 2
C. DTIM = 3
D. DTIM = 4

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
For which quality of service parameter should the WLAN for VoWLAN clients be configured?

A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Bronze

Answer: A

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Practicetest 642-746 Cisco it-exams

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642-746 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 642-746 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
You have configured WLAN override on an AP to broadcast one out of three WLANs on the Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC fails and the AP with WLAN override moves to the secondary Cisco WLC. What should you do to ensure that the same SSID is being advertised as before? Select the best response.

A. Wait for the primary Cisco WLC to come back and manually move the AP back to the primary
Cisco WLC.
B. Make sure the two Cisco WLCs are in the same RF group.
C. Make sure the management addresses of the Cisco WLCs are on separate VLANs.
D. Make sure the secondary Cisco WLC has the same SSID profile configured as the primary.
E. Make sure AP fallback is enabled on both Cisco WLCs.

Answer: D



QUESTION 2
A user walks from one building to another where each building has a Cisco WLC 4402 and 50 APs. However, the user does not get a new IP address from the second building's subnet. What is the reason for this behavior assuming all settings are at defaults? Select the best response.

A. User's DHCP release/renew interval has not timed-out yet.
B. Symmetric mobility tunneling is not enabled.
C. User idle-timeout has not expired yet, so this is considered as a roam.
D. User idle-timeout has expired, so this is considered as a roam.

Answer: C



QUESTION 3
Which port must be opened in the firewall if secure mobility tunneling is enabled between two controllers across a firewall?
Select the best response.

A. UDP 12222
B. UDP 16666
C. UDP 5246
D. UDP 16667
E. UDP 12223
F. UDP 5247

Answer: D

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Practicetest 642-813 Cisco it-exams

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642-813 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 642-813 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
Answer: BF
Section: SpanningTree


QUESTION 2
In a customer's network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named
main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes
down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1
and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a
switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1
could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Answer: CEF

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Only nonedge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
B. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
C. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
D. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
E. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
Answer: D

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Practicetest 642-731 Cisco it-exams

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642-731 Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 642-731 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco antennas provide better isolation from RF sources that might be located behind the antennas?

A. AIR-ANT3213
B. AIR-ANT2465P-R
C. AIR-ANT1949
D. AIR-ANT5160V-R

Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
Which three formats can be used to import floor maps in Cisco WCS v5.2? (Choose three)

A. PNG
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
E. PICT
F. TIFF

Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
Cisco recommends a decibel referenced to 1 milliwatt signal level for the coverage cell edge at the predetermined data rate that is needed to support the VoWLAN device and call capacity requirements. What is that signal level value for Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920, 7921G, and 7925G?

A. -65 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -69 dBm
D. -70 dBm

Answer: B

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Alles klar!

Practicetest 640-864 Cisco it-exams


640-864 Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)

A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes

Answer: ADF

Explanation/Reference:
Mesh Design Recommendations
The following are Cisco recommendations (and considerations) for mesh design:

Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 5


QUESTION 2
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)

A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications

Answer: CD

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation
The SONA framework denes the following three layers:
+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide connectivity, anywhere and anytime. + Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efcient allocation of resources to applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve efciencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.
With above information, you can answer question 2 and 3 below.


QUESTION 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users

Answer: AB

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Practicetest 640-822 Cisco it-exams

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Practicetest 640-822 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
What source and destination information can you find in the data link layer?
A. port number
B. IP address
C. URL
D. MAC address
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements best describe Cisco PAT implementation? (Choose two.)
A. implemented to conserve public IP addresses
B. can only be used between a private network and the Internet
C. provides address connectivity between public and private addresses
D. requires at least two public addresses to operate
Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following
terms defines the wireless topology?
A. ESS
B. IBSS
C. SSID
D. BSS
Answer: A

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Practicetest 640-816 Cisco it-exams

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD



QUESTION 2
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005

Answer: B



QUESTION 3
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?

A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three

Answer: C

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Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams

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640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate(CCNA) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet
interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for
this issue?
A. This address is a broadcast address.
B. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
C. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
D. This address is a network address.
Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic
Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# service password-encryption
C. Router(config)# password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption
Answer: B

Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams

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640-722 CCNA - Wireless Associate - IUWNE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)

A. Results of Layers 1 - 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 - 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.

Answer: A,D


QUESTION NO: 2
When using Cisco WCS version 7.0, which two features are available for the client troubleshooting tool when a Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 wireless client gets connected? (Choose two.)

A. Request CleanAir reports from the client
B. Send text messages to the client
C. Aggregated Cisco ACS authentication client information
D. Request the client to ping the DHCP-supplied IP gateway
E. Display a summary of client event history

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which portion of a WLAN deployment can WLC message logs help to troubleshoot?
RF issues

A. encryption issues between APs and clients
B. configuration verification issues
C. infrastructure and client Issues
D. AP placement issues

Answer: D

Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams