Donnerstag, 21. Februar 2013
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1. You are managing a complex, multisite project under a fixed price contract. Your customer wants to
refine the project scope. You agree that the changes are appropriate, but believe that they constitute
amajor change that increases the project scope. What should you do?
A. Document the estimated additional costs and working hours spent on the implementation of this
change.Accept the change only after the customer's approval. Update the project's scope documentation
and the project schedule with the new information.
B. Review the contract, the Project Charter, and the Statement Of Work for this project. Verify if scope
changes are allowed and which process of scope changes needs to be followed. Then, execute this
procedure.
C. Document the estimated additional costs and working hours spent on the implementation of this
change.Then, contact your sales representative and strategize on how to best reject the request,
considering the fixed price contract type.
D. Refuse the customer's request by queuing the request on a backlog with requirements to be executed
in another project run.
Answer: B
2. You need to develop a schedule to manage the timeline, resources and activities required to complete
the project in the stipulated time. Which elements are necessary to develop this schedule? Choose
the 2 that apply.
A. A work breakdown structure, including the project scope in measurable components.
B. The functional Requirements Document, listing all requirements with detailed information.
C. The Technical Design Document, describing how gap requirements will be resolved.
D. Estimates of the time necessary to deliver these measurable components.
Answer: A D
3. You want to know more about the responsibilities and accountabilities of the engagement manager
and the project manager. Where can you find this information, and what competence allocations do you
expect?
A. You can find the competence allocations in the Communications Strategy Plan.The project manager
will be most likely held accountable while the engagement manager's role will be described as
responsible.
B. You can find the competence allocations in the Communications Strategy Plan.The project manager
willbe most likely held responsible while the engagement manager's role will be described as
accountable.
C. You can find the competence allocations described using a Resource Assignment Matrix (RAM) in the
Roles and Responsibilities template. The project manager will be most likely held accountable while the
engagement manager's role will be described as responsible.
D. You can find the competence allocations described using a Resource Assignment Matrix (RAM) in the
Roles and Responsibilities template. The project manager will be most likely held responsible while the
engagement manager's role will be described as accountable.
Answer: D
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original questions LX0-101 CompTIA it-exams
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LX0-101 CompTIA Linux+[Powered by LPI] Exam 1 The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
When using ssh, what can you do to recover a lost passphrase for a DSA or RSA authentication key?
A. Run the sshkeygen command.
B. Run thessh recover command.
C. A lost passphrase cannot be recovered.
D. Decrypt the authentication key with gpg.
E. Decrypt the authentication key withssh decrypt.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which configuration file would you edit to change default options for outbound ssh sessions?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh
C. /etc/ssh/client
D. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
The command_________ prints a list of email that is currently in the queue waiting for delivery. (Please specify the command with or without path or arguments)
Answer: mailq
QUESTION NO: 4
On a system using shadowed passwords, the correct permissions for /etc/passwd are ___ and the correct permissions for /etc/shadow are ___.
A. rwr, r
B. rwrr, rrr
C. rwrr, r
D. rwrrw,rr
E. rw, r
Answer: C
original questions LX0-101 CompTIA it-exams
original questions M70-101 Magento it-exams
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M70-101 Magento Certified Developer Exam The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module's block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstcact.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module's config.xml defining the form fields to be displayed,
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. data model
B. data helper
C. resource model
D. resource collection
E. setup class
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 3
How can you make a payment method store entire credit card numbers?
A. For security reasons, there are no native ways for doing that.
B. Pass the credit card number to the payment method: it will be stored automatically.
C. Change the protected property of payment method $_canSaveCc to true.
D. Configure your method to save the card number by setting 1 to the following
xpath:default/payment/_NAME_/save_cc
Answer: C
original questions M70-101 Magento it-exams
original questions ITILF2011 EXIN.Inc it-exams
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ITILF2011 The ITIL Foundation - 2011 The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?
A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
B. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D
original questions ITILF2011 EXIN.Inc it-exams
original questions ITIL EXIN.Inc it-exams
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been established
B. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity Management
C. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same time
D. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party
provider
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?
A. The Asset Register
B. The Service Knowledge Management System
C. The Known Error Database
D. The Information Management System
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B. The Problem Record
C. The Availability Management Information System
D. The IT Service Continuity Plan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
What are Request Models used for?
A. Capacity Management
B. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requests
C. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remote
D. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following statements is true?
A. A test condition specifies input values and expected results; a test case combines one or more
test conditions
B. A test condition may be derived from requirements or specifications; a test procedure specifies
the sequence of action for the execution of a test
C. A test case specifies the sequence of execution of test conditions; a test procedure specifies
test pre-conditions and post-conditions
D. A test case specifies input values and expected results; a test procedure may be derived from
requirements or specifications
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which two of the following are common attributes of maintenance testing?
a) It is carried out to ensure that the system will be reliable once in service.
b) It includes regression testing.
c) It requires the use of fully defined specifications.
d) It can include testing of a system after migration from one platform to another.
A. a and b
B. a and c
C. c and d
D. b and d
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements about functional testing is correct?
A. Functional test cases are derived from specifications
B. Functional test cases are derived from an examination of the code
C. Functional testing ensures error free software
D. Functional testing should be done before the Inspection process
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following defects would NORMALLY be identified by a static analysis tool?
A. The response time for the search function exceeded the agreed limit
B. The design specification had many grammatical errors
C. The component code had variables that were used but had not been declaredThe component?
code had variables that were used but had not been declared
D. The component was found to be the source of the memory leak
Answer: C
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IREB IREB Certified Professional for Requirements Engineering The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
Which definition best characterizes the term “traceability” in terms of requirements engineering? (Choose two)
A. Traceability of the effort for the elicitation of the requirements, beginning with the elicitation of the documentation right to the point of requirements acceptance
B. Monitoring of progress in requirements elicitation
C. Ability to analyze requirements for contradictory content, especially between the requirements specifications and the test cases
D. Traceability of the requirements, along with the associated documents, from the requirements elicitation to the implementation
E. Level of satisfaction between the elicited and approved requirements
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 2
Your company works intensively with models with requirements and uses UML for the description of models. Which three capabilities should a modeling tool processes in order to able to create traceable models in the requirements engineering? (Choose three)
A. The model elements can be stored under version control
B. The models are checked for community with the UML definition
C. The model is exported in the XML format
D. Every model element must process anID
E. Model elements can be linked via hyperlinks
F. The modeling tool creates reports suitable for management
Answer: A,C,E
QUESTION NO: 3
Which two statements are correct with regards to the introduction of a requirements engineering tool? (Choose two)
A. The introduction of a tool defines the feature requirements engineering approach
B. Risks associated with the introduction can be identified through a pilot operation
C. The requirements engineering process must be clearly defined before introduction
D. The license costs are generally the greatest cost block relating to the introduction of a
requirements engineering tool
Answer: C,D
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original questions I10-003 XML Master it-exams
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I10-003 XML Master Professional Database Administrator The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
Assume that a certain XMLDB has an HTTP listener function, and can receive XML documents via HTTP protocol.
In this case, the XMLDB follows [Procedure] below to identify the character encoding method of the XML document received.
[Procedure]
(1) If the XML document character encoding method can be determined from the HTTP request header, process the XML document character encoding according to the HTTP request header information.
(2) If the XML document character encoding method cannot be determined from the HTTP request header, identify the character encoding from the XML document itself
Select which is correct as the identified character encoding resulting from the procedure above when the XMLDB receives a well-formed XML document according to [Conditions] below. Assume that the XMLDB follows RFC3023.
[Conditions]
The actual character encoding method for XML document is "UTF-16;" however, no XML
declaration is specified.
The HTTP request header defines "Content-Type: text/xml." however, the charset parameter is not defined in this Content-Type header field.
A. US-ASCII
B. UTF-8
C. UTF-16
D. The character encoding method is determined from system locale, and is therefore
undetermined
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Consider the structure of XML when storing date information as XML data. You must aggregate data for each calendar year from this XML data.
Assume that statistical values related to the storage and retrieval of date information in a certain XMLDB is as follows:
[Date Information XML Structure A]
2007-04-OK/date>
[Date Information XML Structure B]
2QQ741
[Statistical Values] (assumed)
The search for one date node (XML structure A) or one y node (XML structure B) takes one microsecond in either case, regardless of search path.
With respect to structure A, two microseconds are required for each date node to determine whether the date element value matches the search year.
With respect to structure B, one microsecond is required for each y node to determine whether they element value is the same as the search year value.
The number of date elements at the initial state is 2000.
The number of date elements will increase with future updates; however, this is not a
consideration for this question.
Insertion of a new date element under structure A takes 10 microseconds.
Insertion of a new date element under structure B takes 20 microseconds.
Do not consider any facts or conditions other than those noted above.
When the average number of new date element insertions per month is 20, and the average number of calendar date information searches per month is 10, which is the most effective XML structure in improving overall execution efficiency for insertions and searches?
A. XML Structure A
B. XML Structure B
C. Under these conditions, both are equivalent
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 3
Assume that a certain XMLDB can perform a validation check using DTD when inserting an XML document. Select two of the following that are unsuitable when using the xml:id attribute to manage the uniqueness of XML document elements.
Assume that the XMLDB can properly process the xml:id attribute, and that an error is reported when a violation of the xml:id specification occurs.
A. The xml:id attribute can be defined as the ID type using DTD
B. Duplication errors in the values of the xml:id attribute cannot be detected unless a validation check is performed
C. Duplications may occur in the values of the xml:id attribute when combining two XML
documents (neither having errors related to xml:id attributes) into one XML document
D. Duplication errors in the values of the xml:id attribute cannot be detected when the XMLDB does not support XML namespaces
Answer: B,D
original questions I10-003 XML Master it-exams
original questions I10-002 XML Master it-exams
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I10-002 XML Master: Professional V2 The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
Select which of the following correctly describes the results of performing a validation check on "XML Document".Assume that the XML parser correctly processes the XML schema noNamespaceSchemaLocation attribute and the schemaLocation attribute.A. ValidB. The coding for the XML Schema Document is not appropriate; therefore, an error is thrown (initial error) when processing the "testml.xsd" import elementC. The coding for the XML Schema Document is not appropriate; therefore, an error is thrown (initial error) when processing the "testml.xsd" ""D. No processing error, but is not valid.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following correctly describes the DOM (Level 2) Node interface?A. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM element node (Element)B. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM element node (Element)C. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)D. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Select which statement is correct with regards to creating an XML document based on the DTD element type declaration below.
[element type declaration]
A. Both the "notebook" element and the "server" element can be written as a child element of the computer element.
B. As a child element of the "computer" element, the "server" element can be written before the "notebook" element.
C. When writing the "notebook" element, "mouse" must be written as a child element.
D. Only one "mouse" element can be written as a child element of the "notebook" element.
Answer: AB
original questions I10-002 XML Master it-exams
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I10-001 XML Master Basic V2 The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION: 1
Select which statement correctly describes the results of reading the attribute values below using a non-validating XML processor, which does not check validity. Note that [#x9] is shown using #x9,
[#xA] is shown using #xA, [#xD] is shown using #xD, and [#x20] is shown using #x20.
Attribute="[#xA]
[#x9] data 1[#xD][#xA]
data 2"
A. Attribute="[#x20][#x20]data 1[#x20]data 2"
B. Attribute="data 1[#x20]data 2"
C. Attribute="[#xA]data 1[#xA]data 2"
D. Attribute="[#xA][#x9]data 1[#xD][#xA]data 2"
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2
Select which statement correctly describes the results of reading the attribute values below using a non-validating XML processor, which does not check validity. Note that [#x9] is shown using #x9,
[#xA] is shown using #xA, [#xD] is shown using #xD, and [#x20] is shown using #x20.
Attribute="&ENT;"
A. Attribute="[#x20][#x20]data 1[#x20]data 2"
B. Attribute="data 1[#x20]data 2"
C. Attribute="&ENT;"
D. Attribute="[#xA][#x9]data 1[#xD][#xA]data 2"
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3
Select which statement correctly describes the XML document below.
<!DOCTYPE element1 [
]>
<![CDATA[<![CDATA[]]>
A. This is not a valid XML document, because there is no element type declaration for
element2 and element3.
B. This is not a well-formed document, because the CDATA section is not closed.
C. This is not a well-formed document, because the CDATA section does not contain
<![CDATA[.
D. This is a valid XML document.
Answer: D
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HP2-Z23 Selling HP Enterprise Networking Solutions The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
What is an important benefit of the IMC platform?
A. consolidates multiple disparate network management applications into a single common platform
B. provides a mainframe-based architecture that centralizes services
C. replaces desktop software licensed applications
D. optimizes use of the legacy PBX platform
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What Is one of the new rules of networking?
A. borderless networks
B. up to three times better performance
C. simplified network designs
D. up to four time better performance
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer is considering installing a nest generation IT architecture that combines virtualized servers, storage, networks, and facilities into a single environment optimized for any workload.
What is the name of HP's framework for this type of architecture?
A. HP Merged Infrastructure
B. HP Converted Infrastructure
C. HP Connected Infrastructure
D. HP Converged Infrastructure
Answer: D
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HP2-Z22 Selling HP Network Solutions The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
A company is concerned that the temporary workers at a branch office will introduce viruses and other malware into the internal network. The company also wants to provide network access for branch employees who telecommute. Which features make the HP Threat Management Services zl Module a possible security solution for this company's branch office? (Select two.)
A. Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
B. Web filtering
C. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
D. Intrusion Protection System (IPS)
E. User Access Management (UAM)
Answer: C,D
Explanation: The HP Threat Management Services (TMS) zl Module is a multifunction security system for the HP E5400 zl and E8200 zl Switch Series. It is comprised of a stateful firewall, an intrusion detection/prevention system (IDS/IPS), and a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator. It enables network administrators to compartmentalize department traffic, protect the network from malware, and provide secure remote access and site-to-site connectivity.
Reference: HP Threat Management Services zl Module, QuickSpecs
http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13376_div/13376_div.PDF Page 1, ProductOverview)
QUESTION NO: 2
Which is a benefit that distinguishes HP PCM+ from HP PCM?
A. Customers can monitor basic device health.
B. Customers can capture and browse Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and syslog events.
C. Customers can map network devices.
D. Customers can manage their many remote sites.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer's network provides mission-critical services. The company has customers
worldwide, so these services are being used all the time. The company cannot afford any
downtime. Because the company's IT staff is relatively new and inexperienced, the customer wants both hardware replacement services and an HP support person onsite if a problem occurs.
Which care pack would you recommend?
A. HP Support Plus
B. HP 24x7 Software Support with 4-hour Hardware Exchange
C. HP Support Plus 24
D. HP 4-hour Same Business Day
Answer: C
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HP2-Z21 Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Networking Solutions The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
The exhibit displays the type of information about an HP A5820-24XG-SFP+ switch that a sales professional might cite to a customer interested in the product’s performance.
Exhibit: Product specifications
HP A5820-24XG-SPF+ specifications
Maximum 10G: 24
Routing and switching capacity (Gbps): 488
Throughput (Mpps): 363
Typical latency (microseconds):
Layer 2 = Less than 3; normal Layer 3 = Less than 6; jumbo Layer 3 = 26
Which specification demonstrates that this switch provides a good QoS with minimal lag and jitter for all types of traffic?
A. total routing and switching capacity
B. throughput
C. typical latency
D. maximum 10G port density
Answer: C
Reference: http://www.wimax.com/wimax-tutorial/quality-of-service (first paragraph)
QUESTION NO: 2
Which feature is supported on the HP A8800 Router Series, but not on the HP A6600 Router Series?
A. Layer 3/4 traffic prioritization
B. Hierarchical QoS (H-QoS)
C. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
D. Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF)
Answer: B
Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13810_na/13810_na.PDF
QUESTION NO: 3
Which versatile switch series is designed to function at the aggregation layer of a three-tier enterprise campus LAN, the core of a small data center, and the access layer of an advanced enterprise campus LAN?
A. A12500
B. A9500
C. A7500
D. A5820
Answer: D
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HP2-Z09 TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
What happens when an IPS enters Performance Protection Mode (also known as Logging Mode)?
A. Traffic is permitted or blocked depending on segment configuration.
B. Blocks still occur, but other traffic is permitted without notifications.
C. Traffic continues to be inspected, but event notifications are suppressed.
D. Network congestion ceases.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
The TippingPoint Threat Suppression Engine defines a flow based on which criteria? (Select three.)
A. source/destination IP address
B. source/destination MAC address
C. IP protocol
D. source/destination TCP/UDP port
E. incoming segment port
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 3
Which inbuilt feature can prevent the IPS from degrading network performance due to a poorly performing filter where that filter sees a lot of suspicion but fails to match, and congestion is occurring?
A. Link-down synchronization
B. Layer-2 Fallback
C. Performance Protection
D. Adaptive Filter Configuration (AFC)
Answer: D
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QUESTION NO: 1
Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100. You issue the following command:
5406zl(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
Bl
Do you want to continue? [y/n] :
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLIwill not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
After issuing the following two CLI commands, how can you gain access to the CLI of the switch if the manager and operator passwords have been lost?
E5406 (config)# no front-panel-security password-clear
E5406(config)# no front-panel-security factory-reset
A. Power cycle the switch and access the ROM console to clear passwords at the manager prompt.
B. Press the Reset and Clear buttons on the switch's front panel, release the Reset button and hold the Clear button until the all switch LEDs blink rapidly.
C. Contact support and obtain a one-time password to gain access to the switch.
D. Reset the passwords using the Secure Access Wizard i n ProCurve Manager Plus.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
You have configured a dynamic LACP four-port trunk connecting two HP E-Series switches How will the switches share the load over the trunk?
A. The switch that receives the first packet in each conversation will balance the load by ensuring reply packets use a different link.
B. Each switch will assign conversations to links independent of the other switch's selection.
C. The switches will exchange LACP BPDUs to negotiate a load-sharing algorithm.
D. The switches wi II dynamically calculate the path of least congesti on for each conversation
Answer: C
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HP2-T26 Servicing HP BladeSystem Solutions The Certification study materials that can provide are based on the extensive research and experiences from our online trainers, with over 10 years of IT and certification experience. study materials, including questions and answers feed into our larger product base.
QUESTION NO: 1
Technician is installing HP ProLiant servers at different customer sites. Since the technician wants to have the ProLiant equipped with the latest firmware level available, what is the best solution?
A. Before going onsite, the technician should download the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and use this SmartStart Firmware CD for deploying the latest firmware.
B. The technician should download the latest SmartStart firmware CD and add the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD to the
\compaq\swpackages on the CD-ROM.
C. The technician should create a bootable USB stick containing the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and add the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD to the \compaq\swpackages on the USB stick.
D. Before going onsite, the technician should download the latest SmartStart Firmware CD. The technician should download the firmware releases published after the release of the latest SmartStart Firmware CD and save these images on floppies. The SmartStartFirmware CD and downloaded images on floppy are used for deploying the latest firmware.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which interface can be used to check the firmware version of all components in a blade
enclosure?
A. HP System Update Manager
B. Virtual Connect Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. HP System Management Homepage
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which ProLiant Server Blade utilities are available to check the system information and BIOS version? (Select two.)
A. ROM-Based Setup Utility
B. Diagnostic Utility
C. Inspect Utility
D. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays Utility
E. Network Boot Utility
Answer: A,C
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QUESTION NO: 1
A support engineer needs to replace drives on a ProLiant Gen8 server and must securely erase customer data. How can this be achieved?
A. Run the HP System Erase Utility to reset all settings.
B. Run the HP System Erase Utility to reset RBSU.
C. Run a third-party disk shredding tool.
D. Run the HP System Erase Utility to reset all disks.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
You replaced a Smart Array P812 in a DL380 G7 storage server. What should you do next?
A. Verify that the firmware level is current.
B. Install the BBWC battery.
C. Check the FBWC charge.
D. Replace the cache module.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer has placed a service call because RAID 6 cannot be configured on a Smart Array P420i controller using 4 disk drives. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The customer needs a minimum of 6 disk drives to support RAID 6.
B. The battery backed cache option is not installed.
C. The P420i is Smart Array Controller is defective.
D. The P420i Smart Array Controller does not support RAID 6.
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 1
In addition to extensive qualification processes, which HP innovations provide enhanced reliability for HP’s storage devices? (Select two.)
A. advanced carrier engineering
B. compatibility with c7000 enclosures
C. advanced SAS and SATA interfaces
D. advanced error handling in firmware
E. thin film head technology
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 2
Which HP facility allows customers to visualize data center thermals and associate servers to power circuits?
A. Data Center Power Control
B. Intelligent Power Discovery
C. Insight Control Power Management Application Program Interface
D. Intelligent Power Distribution
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
How does Insight Control Virtual Machine Management reduce downtime?
A. It provides a failover cluster environment that automatically fails over database servers.
B. It automatically responds to predictive hardware failures on hypervisor host servers by
relocating VMs before a server fails.
C. It warns of predictive hardware failures on hypervisor host servers, enabling system operators to relocate VMs before a server fails.
D. It automatically responds to hardware failures on hypervisor host servers by relocating VMs.
Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system. (Select three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new process with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 2
Which events could require a firmware update? (Select two)
A. downgrading memory
B. re-installing the operating system
C. adding support for larger, faster drives
D. adding virtual machines to a server
E. removing an existing processor
F. adding plug and play support
Answer: CF
QUESTION 3
Which statements are true about active and passive cooling systems? (Select two)
A. A passive cooling system uses only heat sinks.
B. An active cooling system uses only heat sinks.
C. An active cooling system adds devices such as fans.
D. A passive cooling system adds devices such as fans.
Answer: AC
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