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HP2-K24 Selling HP SMB Storage our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
What is the benefit to your customer of the HP warranty included with the product?

A. A warranty guarantees that faulty items will be repaired within eight working hours.
B. A warranty protects the customer by minimizing the impact of a failure on the business.
C. A warranty ensures that faulty equipment will be back in service as quickly as the business requires.
D. A warranty provides protection against manufacturers’ defects in the product.

Answer: D

Explanation: Warranty service has limitations. Some of those limitations include the following:
*Warranty terms and conditions provide repair or replacement (at the discretion of HP) for defects in the manufacturer's material or workmanship. The warranty does not protect against accidental damage, loss, acts of nature, or any other event that did not originate during the manufacture of the product.
Reference:HP Products - Supplemental Information to Warranty Statements for HP Products
http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?lang=en&cc=us&taskId=125&prodSeriesId=428936&prodTypeId=15351&objectID=c00383139(topic: Warranty Conditions, first bulleted point)


QUESTION NO: 2
A customer of an HP Channel Partner wants a Statement-of-Work engagement with HP, but wants the partner to remain in control of the account. Which service should be used for this situation?

A. HP Custom Services Contract
B. HP Unit of Service
C. HP Assessment Service
D. HP Deployment and Implementation Service

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
You are discussing a possible server deal with your customer. How can you add about 20% to the revenues for the deal, and potentially 30% to the margin?

A. offer a free Proof of Concept
B. reduce the hardware discount by 10%
C. sell HP Care Packs
D. sell HP Warranty Services

Answer: C

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HP2-K23 Selling HP storage solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Which factors are important in developing a financial justification for replacing an existing tape backup system with a data deduplication solution? (Select three)

A. reduced labor costs
B. reduced capital expenditures on storage
C. storage savings resulting from tiered approach
D. staff savings on Grid storage approach
E. cost avoidance on tape media
F. efficiency gains from consolidated encryption technology

Answer: A,B,E



QUESTION NO: 2
What are the key characteristics of the HP 3PAR value proposition? (Select three)
A. Multi-Tenant
B. Converged
C. Thin
D. Efficient
E. Autonomic
F. Adaptive

Answer: A,D,E



QUESTION NO: 3
In what way does "Autonomic" storage deliver value to customers that deploy a 3PAR solution?

A. It provides thin provisioning
B. It enables massive consolidation
C. It allows balanced multi-tenancy.
D. It enables organizations to dynamically react to change

Answer: D

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HP2-H24 Technical Essentials of HP Workstations Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
In addition to speed, what is key feature of DDR3 memory offered in the HP Z620 Workstation compared to DDR2 memory?

A. You can support more memory in the same space.
B. DDR3 features ECC capabilities that are not available in DDR2.
C. DDR3 memory consumes more power thanDDR2.
D. DDR3 memory consumes less power thanDDR2.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
The HP Z620 Workstation provides visually cable-less engineering. Which customer benefit does this provide?

A. Supports hot component swap
B. Increases storage capacity
C. Reduces acoustic noise

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which customer requirement indicates the need for an HP Z820 Workstation rather than an HP Z620 Workstation?

A. Storage of medical images
B. Creation of large financial documents
C. Production of high-end 3D animation movies
D. Large project management applications

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
After installing new software, a customer reports an operating system failure that results in random blue screens.
What is the first option you should recommend for this customer?
A. Restore the operating system from the operating system CD/DVD.
B. Replace the hard drive.
C. Use Microsoft System Restore to return to a previous known working state.
D. Repair the operating system using the operating system CD/DVD.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
Which benefit does HP DriveGuard add to a notebook?
A. It protects the hard drive from moisture damage.
B. It detects sudden motion and temporarily stops the hard drive.
C. It enhances Windows Aero security performance.
D. It encrypts the hard drive data and password-protects it.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which HP product for post-warranty support is available to HP customers?
A. Help Pack Services
B. Care Pack Services
C. Assistant Services
D. Service Pack Option

Answer: B

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HP2-H23 Sales Essentials of HP Workstations Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Why should a customer purchase an HP Performance Display with an HP workstation?

A. HP Performance Displays offer a low-cost solution and27-inchscreens.
B. Only HP Performance Displays can be used in multi-screen configurations.
C. HP Performance Displays feature super-glossy panels with native HDMI resolution.
D. HP Performance Displays are ergonomically designed, provide better image quality, and are tested with professional graphics cards.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
Which HP offering is capable of helping customers support multiple displays that support graphics applications?

A. USB ports on displays that allow customers to daisy chain displays
B. The HP LCD Quick Release that is compatible with most models
C. USB Graphics Adapter that supports up tosevendisplays running different applications
D. Multiple display interfaces that enable customers to ghost applications


Answer: C
Reference:http://www.slipperybrick.com/2009/08/sporting-seven-displays-with-hps-usb-graphicsadapter/


QUESTION NO: 3
What would be a good response to your customer’s objection of “I think we should just use highend PCs for our Autodesk Inventor users, they cost a lot less than workstations”?

A. Our workstations come with ECC memory to help improve performance.
B. Workstations give you more configuration options than desktop PCs.
C. Professional applications are certified on HP Workstations.
D. You will be able to support up to four monitors on an HP Workstation.

Answer: A

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HP2-H19 Servicing HP Client Virtualization Solutions - Sales our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Which person within the customer organization has the greatest influence and the greatest impact on your chances to win the sale?

A. executive director
B. power broker
C. chief information officer
D. chief financial officer

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
When competing against Wyse Thin Clients with ThinOS, what can you point out that would raise customer concerns?

A. The ThinOS operating system has a large footprint with heavy resource overhead.
B. Wyse ThinOS clients take longer to boot than HP Thin Clients.
C. Thin OS customizations go through the Wyse.ini config file using proprietary syntax.
D. Wyse ThinOS clients do not support a stateless architecture.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which competitive differentiator should you stress when competing against Igel?

A. HP's vertical market focus
B. Igel weakness in the Channel
C. weak management solution
D. offer of customized OS

Answer: C

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HP2-E53 Selling HP Enterprise Solutions Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
What is likely to happen if you start negotiating process with a customer before they have conditionally agreed to the sale?

A. You will concede ground, and the customer will have a better starting point.
B. You will not be able to aim high enough.
C. You will lose ground to the competition.
D. You will end up fighting with the customer on price.

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
On the SCOTSMAN qualification checklist, the "A" stands for Authority. Which question would best help you qualify this area on the checklist?

A. What role will finance have in this decision?
B. What process will you go through to arrive at a decision?
C. In what period of time do you need to make the decision?
D. To what extent will purchasing have the final say in this decision?

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Your customer is reaching power capacity limits for their data center. Which factor can you use to identify a way of resolving the problem almost immediately?

A. On average, data centers provision 60% more power than used.
B. On average, data centers provision 70% more network than used.
C. On average, data centers provision 70% more storage than used.
D. On average, data centers provision 85% more server capacity than used.

Answer: A

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HP2-E52 Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions Delta Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
HP's project Odyssey is intended to redefine the future of mission-critical computing with a
development roadmap that will unify UNIX and x86 server architectures.
What is a key benefit of this new project?

A. It will bring industry-leading availability, increased performance, and uncompromising client choice to a single platform.
B. It will enable customers to consolidate and virtualize all applications into one streamlined operating environment.
C. It will enable customers to run Windows and Linux applications and databases on Intel Itaniumbased blades.
D. It will bring the industry-leading HP-UXvirtualizationenvironment ontox86server architecture.

Answer: A

Reference:http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press/2011/111122xb.html


QUESTION NO: 2
Your customer wants to implement a mission critical Private Cloud solution with HP-UX 11 i v3 and be confident that their environment will be supported and be able to evolve into the next decade. Which HP solution would best address these needs?

A. HP BladeSystem
B. CloudSystem Matrix with HP-UX
C. HPX9000
D. HP Converged Infrastructure

Answer: B



QUESTION NO: 3
What enables customers to grow storage performance and capacity seamlessly?

A. Converged Storage Management
B. Scale-up Storage
C. SAS MDL Disks
D. Federated Scale-out Software

Answer: C

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HP2-E51 Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
New storage requirements are being driven by major shifts in the marketplace. What are two of these shifts? (Select two.)

A. the need to provision storage rapidly
B. the need for infrastructure management tools
C. the shift toward decentralized management by non-IT resources
D. the increasing reliance on in-house data centers
E. the need to support diverse and unpredictable workloads

Answer: A,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Which technology shifts are driving new storage requirements? (Select two.)

A. agility
B. serviceability
C. predictability
D. efficiency
E. complexity

Answer: D,E


QUESTION NO: 3
How does HP simplify networks for customer environments?

A. HP virtualizes, collocates, and flattens the networks.
B. HP virtualizes, converges, and flattens the networks.
C. HP virtualizes, converges, and operates the networks.
D. HP virtualizes, converges, and expands the networks.

Answer: B

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HP2-E50 Consultative Selling of HP Mission Critical Technical Services our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Besides a traditional solution, which type of solution do FlexFabric networks allow customers to adopt?
A. HP BladeSystem-integrated server edge
B. HP storage-integrated server edge
C. HP wireless LAN-integrated server edge
D. HP security-integrated server edge

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
HP switches make use of an HP-developed technology to enable the creation of a resilient virtual switching fabric. What is the name of this technology?
A. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
B. Intelligent Reference Framework (IRF)
C. Intelligent Reliable Fabric (IRF)
D. Intelligent Recovery Framework (IRF)

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
The requirement for Layer 2 extension between data centers is driven by the customer's desire to extend various clustering applications (and other high availability technologies between multiple DCs), support VMotion between data centers, and limit downtime during data center migration and consolidation activities. Which HP solution can meet these requirements?
A. HP Intelligent Management Center (IMC)
B. HP Virtual Connect
C. HP Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
D. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

Answer: C

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HP2-E49 Technical Essentials of HP Servers, Storage and Networking - Upgrade our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Which is a feature of HP Data Protector Express?

A. D2Any2Any automated copy and parallel data streams
B. fast backups and Virtual Tape Libraries
C. dynamically shared libraries and database redundancy
D. upgradability to Data Protector and data deduplication

Answer: A

Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13732_div/13732_div.PDF(first page,third paragraph)


QUESTION NO: 2
Which technology is used by servers to connect to NAS devices?

A. Ethernet
B. USB
C. Fibre Channel
D. host bus adapter

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement is true about distributed virtual RAID7?

A. It is possible to determine on which physical disk user data resides
B. Load balancing is required of the application and databases over available back-end (SCSI)buses
C. Performance is limited by the number of disk drives in the storage set.
D. l/Os are balanced across the disk group

Answer: D

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HP2-E47 Selling HP Value Support Services our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
How would you respond to a customer who says that they need an on-site presence for hardware issues from HP to provide support?

A. HP will provide a permanent presence at the customer site.
B. HP has the most robust and complete standard services offering.
C. HP will guarantee repairs within 4 hours of the initial call to HP.
D. HP will offer a fully outsourced solution.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which support package should you recommend first to a customer who requires support for their HP 9000 disk array?

A. 3-Year Critical Advantage Level 3 Service
B. 3-Year Proactive 24
C. 3-Year HP Critical Service
D. 3-Year Support Plus 24

Answer: C

Reference:http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/13725_div/13725_div.pdf(page 53)


QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of HP Storage Services Sales Plays? (Select two.)

A. They help recommend the most appropriate solutions.
B. They create a Statement of Work (SOW) for storage services.
C. They define the storage networking needs of the customer.
D. They lead the discussion on storage services.
E. They develop the price to the customer.

Answer: A,D

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HP2-E46 Selling HP Volume Support Services our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
How would you define the new IT infrastructures that are being built using x86 servers and HP Technology Services?

A. the distributed infrastructure
B. the converged infrastructure
C. the server-centric infrastructure
D. the internet-centric infrastructure

Answer: B

Reference:http://www.connect-community.org/news/77784/New-this-Month-HP-to-Transform-Server-Market-with-Single-Platform-for-.htm


QUESTION NO: 2
What support offering is an integral part of HP electronic remote support?

A. HP Support Center
B. HP Telephone Support
C. HP e-Swap Product Replacement
D. HP Proactive Select

Answer: A

Reference:http://h20427.www2.hp.com/services/whitepaper/cn/zh/document/UF_SP24_en_20060401.pdf(page 3, topic 1.9)


QUESTION NO: 3
How does HP Remote help reduce risk for a customer’s IT infrastructure?

A. by remotely scanning PCs on the network
B. by proactively predicting peak usage traffic on the network
C. by proactively identifying problems before they occur
D. by remotely ordering hardware replacements for faulty devices

Answer: C

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Practicetest HP2-E45 HP it-exams

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HP2-E45 Technical Introduction to the HP SMB Portfolio our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
How do HP independent software vendor partners support HP server sales?

A. by consulting about how to align IT with business application requirements at the back end of a sale
B. by consulting about how to align their products and licenses to the customer's IT infrastructure
during merger and acquisition scenarios
C. by consulting about how to align IT with the Converged Infrastructure at the front end of the sale
D. by consulting about how to ensure continued functionality of business applications in migration or
transition scenarios

Answer: C



QUESTION 2
What is a likely outcome if a system is over-configured?

A. It will have a lower ROI for the investment.
B. It will run at performance levels ideal for SMBs.
C. It will not provide adequate service or scalability.
D. It will maximize the SMB customer's price to performance ratio.

Answer: A



QUESTION 3
What is a likely outcome if a system is under-configured?

A. It will not perform basic subroutines.
B. it will run at performance levels ideal for SMBs.
C. It will not provide adequate scalability.
D. it will maximize the SMB customer's price to performance ratio.

Answer: C

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Practicetest HP2-E43 HP it-exams

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HP2-E43 Selling HP SMB Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Why does HP win in the networking area?
A. reduced complexity with infrastructure management tools such as Insight Control Remote Management
B. end-to-end visualization solutions and easy to deploy visualization bundles
C. mission critical services to keep business services running 24x7
D. "single pane-of-glass" management software for simplified lifecycle management

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
Your customer is experiencing slow response time for applications, and has diagnosed the problem as poor switch management. Why would a managed switch be a good solution?
A. Managed switches monitor network performance for bottlenecks.
B. Managed switches are designed to automate and reduce the configuration effort.
C. Managed switches are entry-level wireless access points that do not support dual networks.
D. Managed switches will keep all visitors off of the customer's wireless LAN

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 3
Why does HP win in the server market?
A. reduced complexity with infrastructure management tools such as Insight Control Remote Management, Data Center Power Control. Intelligent Power Discovery, and Insight Remote Support Software
B. complex visualization without pre-configured bundles that can be readily implemented
C. "single pane-of-glass" management software for simplified lifecycle management across wired and wireless networks with integrated policy control and security for seamless operation and lower maintenance and support costs
D. long-term emphasis on low acquisition costs as opposed to overall value and return on investment (ROI)

Answer: A

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Practicetest HP2-E38 HP it-exams

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HP2-E38 Selling HP Enterprise Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
What is the advanced lifecycle management software for HP Integrity servers that allows your customers to instantly adjust to dynamic business demands?

A. HP Matrix Operating environment for HP-UX
B. Business Service Management environment
C. HP Serviceguard
D. Suse Linux environment

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
HP offers three types of HP-UX containers. Workload containers and HP 9000 containers are two types. What is the third type?

A. Storage container
B. System container
C. Server container
D. Database container

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Which technology provides many of the features normally associated with nPartitions, but at a software level, and with greater core-level granularity?

A. HP-UX virtual partitions
B. HP-UX Secure Resource partitions
C. HP Recovery partitions
D. HP SMH partitions

Answer: A

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HP2-E37 selling HP Bladesystems our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
Which question would help uncover a BladeSystem opportunity for a customer with availability concerns?

A. Are you able to scale storage to match your growing server environment?
B. Are there business demands and opportunities that are not being met by your current servers?
C. What is your process for managing or moving workloads during system downtime?
D. Would a pre-configured solution help relieve IT service delivery pressures?

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
How can HP BladeSystem assist a customer that is planning a server consolidation or
virtualization project?

A. It can deliver high-performance computing with multiple management tools.
B. It can deliver the same compute power in a significantly reduced footprint.
C. It can eliminate the need for multiple different chassis.
D. It can eliminate the need for archival systems and processes.

Answer: B

Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA0-5285ENW.pdf


QUESTION NO: 3
Which customer situation would indicate a possible Rack-to-Blade sales play?

A. The customer has just completed a data center consolidation.
B. The customer has data center constraints along with increasing costs for power and cooling.
C. The customer has made a decision to utilize a hosting service provider.
D. Recent news indicates that the customer is a merger/acquisition target.

Answer: B

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HP0-Y32 Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
Why might you make different decisions about which VLANs to permit on a port in an MSTP environment than in a PVST+ environment? (Select two.)
A. MSTP ports send the same number of BPDUs regardless of the number of VLANs
configured on them.
B. To receive a BPDU for an MSTP instance, the port must support each VLAN in that instance.
C. To transmit a BPDU for an MSTP instance, the port must support each VLAN in that instance.
D. MSTP creates Spanning Trees without regard to which VLANs are configured on the ports.
E. MSTP creates a different Spanning Tree for each VLAN as well as for the Common Spanning
Tree (CST).

Answer: AD


QUESTION 2
You have a network that is a single OSPF area. LAN B is connected to Router R1. LAN B is a stub network. A rogue OSPF router is connected to LAN B and by advertising duplicated routes it creates conflicts that can bring down the network.How should you prevent this?
A. Configure the whole area as an OSPF Stub Area.
B. Configure the whole area as OSPF NSSA.
C. Do not include LAN B's IP subnet address in R1's OSPF area configuration.
D. Configure R1's IP interface connected to LAN B as a silent OSPF interface.

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A Cisco switch and an E5400 zl are connected together and can successfully ping each other. The Cisco switch does not see the LLDP neighbor information of the HP switch. What should you do?
A. Ensure that LLDP is enabled on the Cisco switch.
B. Ensure that the HP switch has CDP enabled.
C. Change the refresh interval of LLDP on the HP switch.
D. Ensure that the Cisco switch has CDP enabled.

Answer: A

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HP0-Y30 Implementing HP Networking Technologies our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch# show logging 1

A. The CLI displays usage statistics for the previous hour.
B. The CLI displays a summary of events in the primary log.
C. The CLI displays only logged events for VLAN 1.
D. The CLI displays all events in the system log that include the string 1.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is the relationship between the primary and secondary flash areas of an HP E8206 zl switch?

A. The primary area contains the switch's operating system. The secondary area contains the
configuration files.
B. The primary area contains the switch's operating system, which is automatically copied to
the secondary area whenever it is upgraded.
C. The primary and secondary images are managed independently, enabling the switch to be
started using either image.
D. The primary area contains the most recent software version. The secondary area always
holds an earlier version as a backup.

Answer: C



QUESTION 3
You must install an HP E-MSM AP that is at factory settings.
When must you change the AP's operating mode?

A. when the AP must interoperate with HP A-Series APs
B. when the AP must operate in controlled mode
C. when the AP must operate in autonomous mode
D. when the AP will act as a wireless bridge

Answer: C

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HP0-S32 HP BladeSystem Networking 2011 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)

A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved

Answer: BEF



QUESTION 2
Which protocol is an industry-standard trunking protocol?

A. PAgP
B. HP Port Trunking
C. ISL
D. LACP

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
How does a Shared Uplink Set handle VLAN tags in Map mode?

A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch

Answer: D

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HP0-S31 Managing Windows and Linux Server Systems our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
You manage a Red Hat EL server for your company. The server provides ftp services for the Engineering Division. You have installed a second server in a remote location to serve as a disaster recovery backup to the primary ftp server. You will use the rsync utility to replicate data from the primary to the backup server. The remote location is connected through an Internet link. Therefore, you have configured rsync to transfer data securely over ssh. However, you are having trouble automating the process because the ssh connection always prompts for a password. How can you resolve this problem?

A. Connect as a non-root user and use sudo to transfer data.
B. Connect to the remote location through a VPN client.
C. Install and use OpenSSH on both servers.
D. Configure ssh key-based authentication.

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
You have installed a new financial management application on a Windows Server 2008 R2 server for the Accounting Department of your company. You have configured the application correctly according to the instructions given to you. The accountant that is testing the application says that he has correctly installed and configured the client application on his workstation but it cannot connect to the server. What is a possible cause of this problem?

A. The SSL certificate for the server is misconfigured.
B. The DHCP service is not running on the server.
C. The Windows Firewall has not been opened for this application.
D. The server is not a member of a domain.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is the name of the packet-filtering firewall software package that comes with a standard installation of a Red Hat EL server?

A. TCP Wrappers
B. NetACL
C. IP Tables
D. NetFirewall

Answer: C

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HP0-S30 Design and Implementation of H SIM and HP Insight Control our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
What are two possible reasons that a managed server would show an unknown status
in the PF column of HP SIM? (Select two.)

A. The server is not licensed.
B. The polling timeout values need to be increased.
C. The system needs to be re-identified.
D. A hardware polling task has not run.
E. The server is not marked for monitoring.

Answer: AE



QUESTION 2
What should you consider when troubleshooting performance issues with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) running on a virtual machine (VM)?

A. The central management server (CMS) cannot be managed from HP SIM when it is
installed on a VM.
B. Access to the HP SIM console is limited to local access.
C. The HP SIM management domain is limited to approximately 1,000 nodes.
D. Out-of-band management is not permitted when HP SIM is installed on a VM.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When you are using the Managed Systems Setup Wizard to configure Secure Shell (SSH) on a target server, what must you consider?

A. Initial SSH configuration failure on iLO is a normal and expected condition.
B. The private key must be pushed to the target system.
C. Exchange of SSH keys with the CMS enables single sign-on (SSO) functionality.
D. You do not need to install SSH on a Windows server because it ships with Windows
by default.

Answer: A

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HP0-S26 Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
In an Intel Xeon 5500 Series server using DDR3 memory, which bus is used by a processor to access the memory of another processor?

A. Front Side Bus
B. QuickPath Interconnect
C. Direct Connect Architecture
D. Hyper Transport Bus

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which tool is used to configure the BIOS and array during the initial server deployment using HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)?

A. System Configuration Tool
B. Initial Deployment Configurator
C. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit
D. Array Configuration Utility

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
What do Packaged Clusters provide? (Select three.)

A. One part number for all necessary cluster components preassembled
B. Color-coded cables for easy cable connections
C. multiple processor support
D. multiple operating system support (Windows 2003, Linux, and Windows Server 2008)
E. multiple wired cables for better cable routing

Answer: A,B,D

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HP0-M43 HP Service Manager 9.x Softwares our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION 1
Which additional modules are available to Service Desk customers who migrate to Service Manager? (Select four.)

A. UCMDB Foundation
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Change Management
E. Scheduled Maintenance
F. Request Management
G. Service Catalog
H. Service Level Management

Answer: AEFG



QUESTION 2
The Web Application Server belongs to which Service Manager application tier?

A. Server Tier
B. Web Tier
C. Client Tier
D. Database Tier

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
When installing Service Manager 9.x, what does the Service Manager Application Server contain?

A. RunTime Engine and configuration files including utilities to connect to the RDBMS
B. Tomcat or another Web Application Server
C. Apache or another Web Server
D. Service Manager applications in the RDBMS

Answer: A

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HP0-S25 Implementing ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.


QUESTION NO: 1
You have registered and downloaded the following installation iso file from https://h20392.www2.hp.com/ecommerce/efulfillment/downloadpage.do?downloadKey=xxxxxx VMware vSphere Hypervisor 4 (ESXi) and Updates - 4.1 U1 Apr 2011 ESXi HD-USB-SDImgeInstlr
(Z7550-00096.iso) What is required in order for servers installed using the iso file above to be managed by HP Systems Insight Manager?

A. WBEM driver for the related server
B. download the HP version of vSphere Client
C. configure management network on DCUI
D. configure lockdown mode on DCUI

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
You receive a new HP ProLiant DL380 G7 server that shipped in the original packing box. What do you get as part of the HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant? (Select two.)

A. HP Firmware DVD
B. HP SmartStart CD
C. HP Insight Software DVD
D. HP RackSystem Documentation CD
E. Microsoft Windows Server 2008 DVD Kit
F. VMware vSphere 5 DVD Kit

Answer: B,C


QUESTION NO: 3
You installed a new Smart Array P812 adapter in a DL380 G7 server. Which advanced features are included in the P812 adapter that are not available on the on-board Smart Array adapter?(Select three.)

A. mirror splitting and recombining in offline mode
B. enabling Quad Domain for redundant pathways for external drives
C. enabling multi-mode connection speeds from the SAS interface and support for legacy SAS drives
D. Shrink Array operation
E. enabling support for both parallel SCSI and SAS interface on the server adapter
F. transferring the contents of a disk array from one set of physical drives to a second set of physical drives

Answer: A,D,F
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HP0-M36 HP Data Protector Software Fundamentals for Windows our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
You move a Cell Manager from 32-bit Windows 2003 to 64-bit Windows 2008. Which perl script helps you accomplish this task?

A. omnidbtool.pl
B. omnimigrate.pl
C. dbtool.pl
D. winomnimigrate.pl

Answer: D



QUESTION 2
On a Windows Cell Manager, which process runs as an application process and NOT as a service?

A. Cell Request Server (CRS)
B. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Remote Connection Daemon (inet)

Answer: B



QUESTION 3
What must you do when upgrading cluster-aware clients to HP Data Protector Software 6.1?

A. Uninstall the client software on the clients, re-install the new client software locally,
and re- import the clients into the cell.
B. Upgrade each cluster node locally and then re-import the virtual server into the cell.
C. Remotely install the virtual server and re-import the client nodes into the cell.
D. Delete all clientnodes from the cell, remotely install the client software and re-import
the virtual server into the cell.

Answer: B

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HP0-M28 Implementing HP Asset Manager Software our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which IT Asset Management best practices are incorporated within Asset Manager? (Select three.)
A. Asset Tracking
B. Identity Management
C. Service Management
D. Network Management
E. Contract Management
F. Procurement Management

Answer: A,E,F


QUESTION NO: 2
Where can you execute an Asset Manager query without impacting performance?
A. in the action script
B. in the validity script
C. in the mandatory script
D. in the workflow triggering script

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 3
What is the LEAST efficient type of calculated field?
A. self
B. AQL
C. BASIC script
D. calculated string

Answer: C

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Practicetest HP0-J53 HP it-exams

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HP0-J53 Designing HP Storage Datacenter Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about using a StoreOnce NAS share for backup?

A. The first 24MB of a file are not deduplicated.
B. 50% of the space can use a general purpose NAS.
C. NFS NAS shares offer a greater deduplication ratio than a Virtual Tape Library (VTL).
D. Virtual Tape Library (VTL) and NAS traffic should be split across the D2D adapters.

Answer: A



QUESTION 2
Which switch configuration for B-Series switches must be used in an HP Continuous Access EVA
environment for all Fibre Channel switches in the path from the source array to the destination array when the HP-FC protocol is used? (Select two.)
A. enable port-based routing
B. enable Exchange-based routing
C. enable in-order delivery
D. disable in-order delivery
E. connect EVA ports to ASIC0
F. connect EVA ports to ASIC1

Answer: AC



QUESTION 3
Which vSphere configuration menu must be used in order to enable iSCSI functionality for
communication with a P4000 network using vSphere4?

A. Network Adapters
B. Storage Adapters
C. Software Configuration
D. Storage Configuration

Answer: B

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HP0-J51 Installing HP StorageWorks Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
For the X1000 Network Storage System, the HP Storage Server Management Console provides access to which function?

A. Telnet Remote Console
B. File Server Resource Manager
C. Quick Setup Wizard
D. Desktop Indexing Control

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
When is it useful to limit the maximum size of a virtual cartridge of a D2D system?

A. when backup software vendors specify that only small cartridges are supported
B. when there are only server image backups and you need one cartridge per server
C. when you know you will be moving data to a physical tape with a smaller cartridge capacity
D. when you only have small files to back up

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When installing an HP P2000 G3 Storage Array, which type of access is available to the storage system when a DHCP server is not currently available on the management LAN?

A. serial cable to the controller
B. web-based GUI
C. crossover cable to the array management port
D. no access

Answer: B

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HP0-J49 Designing and Implementing HP Cloud Solutions using HP 3PARn our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
You are troubleshooting a 3PAR T400 solution. The solution has four nodes and iSCSI. Which configuration rule must you be aware of?

A. At least one node in each controller pair must have an iSCSI card.
B. Only one node must have an iSCSI card.
C. Both nodes in a controller pair must have iSCSI cards.
D. All four nodes must have iSCSI cards.

Answer: C



QUESTION 2
What differentiates the HP 3PAR solution from the HP StorageWorks EVA solution?

A. volumes striped over many disk drives
B. simple management interface
C. automatic load balancing
D. mesh-active cluster

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
What benefits most from the multi-tenancy feature of the HP 3PAR Storage System?

A. backup-to-disk solutions
B. entry level to mid-range solutions
C. service provider environments
D. $/MB-sensitive environments

Answer: C

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HP0-J46 Designing and Implementation HP Enterprise Backup Solution our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
During installation of a Windows backup solution the backup software receives timeouts while performing remote installation of clients. Which actions should be performed to resolve this issue? (Select two.)

A. Install clients from local CD order DVD.
B. Check DNS if hosts are resolved correctly.
C. Verify firewall settings on remote hosts.
D. Modify host lists to manually add clients.
E. Reinstall installation server functionality on the backup server.

Answer: B,C



QUESTION NO: 2
When configuring deduplication on a VLS9000, what must be considered in order to derive the greatest benefit from deduplication? (Select two.)

A. number of slots
B. retention period
C. backup window
D. virtual cartridge sizing
E. number of virtual libraries

Answer: B,D



QUESTION NO: 3
What is the function of Media Containers?

A. transport media between data centers, vaults, and sites
B. hold media that are of the same type and have similar properties
C. store media in vaults to protect the data separately from the live data in the data centers
D. logically group media in HP Data Protectorsoftware

Answer: A

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HP0-D13 Technical Introduction to the HP Enterprise Portfolio,Rev. 11.41 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which statement is true about ProLiant DL2000 Multi Node servers?

A. They were designed to double server density to maximize data center floor space.
B. They enable you to set aside extra capacity for unexpected increases in power usage.
C. They consist of up to four independent DL170e G6 servers in a 2U ProLiant e2000 G6 chassis.
D. They deliver a 23:1 consolidation ratio, increasing operational efficiencies so that they can pay for themselves in as little as two months.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
How does HP make VirtualSystem available to customers?

A. as a choice of modular systems for small, midsize, or large deployments
B. as a free download to manage multiple server and storage systems
C. as a single application with multiple modules for managing third-party products
D. as a stand-alone solution for operating system fault isolation

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
What does an HP Converged Infrastructure deliver?

A. HP products that enable customers to plan infrastructure upgrades with minimal downtime and management
B. a rip-and-replace process that minimizes administrative overhead when installing hardware and applications
C. an approach for accelerating time-to-business value for large and mid-sized enterprises
D. a tool for configuring HP storage stacks, server stacks, and networking stacks to optimize performance

Answer: C

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HH0-250 Hitachi Data Systems Implementer File Services-NAS our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Your customer wants to obtain the Management Information Base (MIB) to integrate a Hitachi NAS Platform into their Event Management framework. What are two ways to obtain the MIB? (Choose two.)

A. Download the Enterprise MIB module from EVS.
B. Download the Enterprise MIB module from the Web Manager GUI.
C. Download the Enterprise MIB module from HiTrack.
D. Contact the Hitachi Data Systems Support Center for the latest Enterprise MIB.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 2
You are implementing a new Hitachi NAS Platform and must configure the chunk size parameter for the storage pool. What are two considerations to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. Chunk size defines the increment by which a file system will grow when expanded.
B. A small chunk size will give better performance for small files.
C. The chunk size cannot be larger than the system drive (SD) size.
D. A file system can contain up to a maximum of 1023 chunks.

Answer: A,D


QUESTION NO: 3
You are implementing a four node Hitachi NAS Platform cluster at a customer site. Where does the cluster quorum reside?

A. on the first node of the cluster
B. on a SMU
C. on the last node of the cluster
D. on any of the cluster nodes

Answer: B

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FM0-307 Developer Essentials for FileMaker 12 Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are true regarding the Go to Related Records script step? (Choose two.)

A. If there are no related records, the destination layout will have 0 records in the found set.
B. The script step can specify a layout in another FileMaker Pro 12 file as the destination layout.
C. The script step has the option to display the related records in any of the file's existing windows.
D. The script step has the option to show records related to the current record only or to all the records in the found set.
E. The Go to Related Records script step will not work if the destination table is based on an External Data Source of type ODBC.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2
A FileMaker Pro 12 database has a script called MyScript that contains only the following script step:
Install OnTimer Script [Hello World; Interval:60]
From Window_01 the user runs MyScript and then creates a new window (Window_02). From Window_02 the user creates a new window (Window_03).
What is the status of the script Hello World?

A. The Hello World script runs immediately when each new window opens.
B. The Hello World script will continue to run on Window_01 and Window_02 and Window_03.
C. The Hello World script will continue to run on Window_01 but will not run on Window_02 or Window_03.
D. The Hello World script will continue to run on Window_01 until it triggers for the first time in one of the new windows.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which two script steps, if executed by a user in a hosted file with multiple logged-in users, can affect the active sessions of other users? (Choose two.)

A. Enable Account [Deactivate]
B. Refresh Window [Flush cached join results]
C. Insert From Index [Select; Product::description]
D. Install Menu Set ["My Menu Set"; Use as file default]
E. Insert From URL [Select; Product::description; "http://widgets.com"]
F. Set Selection [Product::Description; Start Position: 1; End Position: Length
(Product::description)]

Answer: C,E

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Practicetest HH0-120 Hitachi it-exams

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HH0-120 Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Modular Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
An AMS family storage system connected to a USP V as external storage is upgraded with new capacity. The customer has created new LUs to be presented to the USP V. Which statement is correct?

A. LUs must be at least 1GB in size.
B. LUs must be formatted.
C. LUs must be assigned to different FC ports.
D. LUs from different RAID Groups must be used.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is correct when a ShadowImage pair is created and the OS file system on the PVol contains no files?

A. The entire contents of the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.
B. Data is only copied to the S-Vol when the first file is created on the P-Vol.
C. Only the basic OS format information is copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol.
D. The ShadowImage pair cannot be created without any data being present on the S-Vol.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
A storage administrator is unable to create new remote path settings using TrueCopy software on a Hitachi AMS2300 and is no longer able to make S-Vol changes using the ShadowImage software. New pool settings cannot be defined using the Copy-on-Write (COW) Snapshot feature.
What is the next step that the storage administrator must perform?

A. Re-enable this functionality through the CCI.
B. Create a ticketed request to the HDS Global Support Center.
C. Verify license key information in normal mode in Storage Navigator Modular 2.
D. Switch to management mode in Storage Navigator Modular 2 to verify license key information.

Answer: D

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FCNSP FortiOS 4.0 GA, FortiAnalyzer 4.0 GA(FCNSP v4.0) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
In order to local-share traffic using multiple static routes, the routes must be configured with
A. the same distance and same priority
B. the same distance and the same weight
C. the same distance but each of them must be assigned a unique priority.
D. a distance equal to its desired weight for ECMP but all must have the same priority.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
A FortiGate unit is configured with multiple VDOMs. An administrative account on the device has been assigned a Scope value of VDOM:root.
Which of the following items would an administrator logging in using this account NOT be able to configure?
A. Firewall addresses
B. DHCP servers
C. FortiGuard Distribution Network configuration
D. PPTP VPN configuration

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
In the Tunnel Mode widget of the web portal, the administrator has configured an IP Pool and enabled spilt tunneling.
Which if the following statements is true about the IP address used by the SSL VPN client?
A. The IP pool specified in the SSL-VPN Tunnel Mode Widget options will override the IP address range defined in the SSL-VPN settings.
B. Because spilt tunneling is enabled, no IP address needs to be assigned for the SSL tunnel to be established.
C. The IP address range specified in SSL-VPN Settings will override the IP address range in the SSL-VPN Tunnel Mode Widget Option.

Answer: A

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FCNSA fortine certified network security administrator our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following items represent the minimum configuration steps an administrator must perform to enable Data Leak Prevention for traffic flowing through the FortiGate unit? (Select all that apply.)

A. Assign a DLP sensor in a firewall policy.
B. Apply one or more DLP rules to a firewall policy.
C. Enable DLP globally using the config sys dlp command in the CLI.
D. Define one or more DLP rules.
E. Define a DLP sensor.
F. Apply a DLP sensor to a DoS sensor policy.

Answer: A,D,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Because changing the operational mode to Transparent resets device (or vdom) to all defaults,
which precautions should an Administrator take prior to performing this? (Select all that apply.)

A. Backup the configuration.
B. Disconnect redundant cables to ensure the topology will not contain layer 2 loops.
C. Set the unit to factory defaults.
D. Update IPS and AV files.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is true regarding Switch Port Mode?

A. Allows all internal ports to share the same subnet.
B. Provides separate routable interfaces for each internal port.
C. An administrator can select ports to be used as a switch.
D. Configures ports to be part of the same broadcast domain.

Answer: A

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EX0-105 Information Security Foundation based on ISO/IEC 27002 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION 1
Which one of the threats listed below can occur as a result of the absence of a physical measure?

A. A user can view the files belonging to another user.
B. A server shuts off because of overheating.
C. A confidential document is left in the printer.
D. Hackers can freely enter the computer network.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What is the best description of a risk analysis?

A. A risk analysis is a method of mapping risks without looking at company processes.
B. A risk analysis helps to estimate the risks and develop the appropriate security measures.
C. A risk analysis calculates the exact financial consequences of damages.

Answer: B


QUESTION 3
What is the goal of an organization's security policy?

A. To provide direction and support to information security
B. To define all threats to and measures for ensuring information security
C. To document all incidentsthat threaten the reliability of information
D. To document all procedures required to maintain information security

Answer: A

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EX0-104 TMap Next Foundation our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which TMap phase may be located on the critical path?
A. Planning and Control
B. Specification
C. Execution
D. Preparation

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
What is the correct description of the term est level?
A. the information that defines the required system behavior
B. a group of test activities with the attention of checking the information system in respect of a number of correlated (part aspects of) quality characteristics
C. a group of test activities that are managed and executed collectively

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
During which TMap phase is testing 'dynamic implicit'?
A. Specification
B. Execution
C. Preparation

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
An ArcGIS user is trying to add data from an enterprise database to an ArcMap document but is unable to see any feature classes in the database.
Why is the ArcGIS user unable to add the data?

A. A folder connection between ArcCatalog and the data location is missing
B. The ArcGIS user has inappropriate permissions to access the data
C. Another user has a schema lock on that database
D. Another user owns the data in a public version

Answer: B



QUESTION NO: 2
Which effect does applying a join in ArcMap to a layer and a stand-alone table have?

A. It will create a new output feature class containing the layer and associated data
B. It will temporarily append the associated data to the layer's attribute table
C. It will permanently append the associated data to the layer's attribute table
D. It will create a new output layer containing the layer and associated data

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 3
An ArcGIS user is creating a road, which will need to be snapped to the border of a land parcel.
Which snapping option must be turned on?

A. Point snapping
B. End snapping
C. Vertex snapping
D. Edge snapping

Answer: D

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Practicetest EX0-101 EXIN.Inc it-exams

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1. Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them

Answer: B


2. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralised Service Desk?
A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

Answer: D


3. Service Design emphasizes the importance of the 'Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these 'Four Ps'?
A. People, Products, Partners, Profit
B. People, Process, Products, Partners
C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, Profit
D. People, Potential, Products, Performance

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
You are analyzing data in order to build a classifier model. You discover non-linear data and discontinuities that will affect the model. Which analytical method would you recommend?

A. Decision Trees
B. Logistic Regression
C. ARIMA
D. Linear Regression

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
What is an appropriate data visualization to use in a presentation for a project sponsor?

A. Bar chart
B. Pie chart
C. Box and Whisker plot
D. Density plot

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
In a Student's t-test, what is the meaning of the p-value?

A. it is the area under the appropriate tails of the Student's distribution
B. it is the "power" of the Student's t-test
C. it is the mean of the distribution for the null hypothesis
D. it is the mean of the distribution for the alternate hypothesis

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
An EMC Disk Library customer is considering using Remote Copy between two engines. A policy will be configured to copy data when 50 MB of data is sent to the virtual tape. How does the data transfer occur?

A. Whole content of the virtual tape is sent to the target once the first 50 MB is stored in the buffer
B. Incremental data is sent to the target engine when the virtual tape is unmounted and 50 MB of new data has been written
C. Incremental data is sent immediately to the target engine as soon as 50 MB of new data is received by the virtual tape during the backup process
D. Incremental data is sent to the target in 50 MB increments whenever the virtual tape is idle

Answer: B



QUESTION NO: 2
Given an RPO, which factors must be considered when designing an EMC NetWorker backup solution?

A. Server parallelism and target sessions
B. Amount of backup data and backup devices
C. Retention period and backup level
D. Multiplexing and client parallelism

Answer: B



QUESTION NO: 3
A customer has two sites with 50 clients at each site. The customer wants the backup to occur locally on tape media at each site and would like to have a single EMC NetWorker datazone for the entire environment. A NetWorker server has already been deployed at one site. Which NetWorker component should be deployed at the second site?

A. Dedicated storage node
B. Deduplication node
C. Storage node
D. NetWorker server

Answer: A

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E20-818 Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
An SRDF/Star solution has been deployed. The customer is concerned about data consistency at
the target sites during the initial Star configuration process.
When is the data consistent at the asynchronous target site?

A. After the completion of the Protect step
B. After the completion of the Connect step
C. As soon as the Connect step is initiated
D. As soon as the Protect step is initiated

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2

A customer has implemented a two-node Windows 2008 MFC cluster with SRDF/CE. SRDF
device pairs are in SRDF/S mode. The customer wants to add additional disks to a cluster disk
group.
What is the recommended tool to add additional disks to a cluster disk group?

A. Microsoft Failover Cluster Manager
B. Cluster Enabler Manager
C. Solutions Enabler
D. Symmetrix Management Console
Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
You plan to implement SRDF/CE with a geographically dispersed two-node Microsoft cluster. The
sites are 500 miles apart. Which Quorum model should you use?

A. Majority Node Set with File Share Witness
B. Majority Node Set
C. Shared Quorum Disk
D. Majority Node Set with Witness Disk

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
You have been assigned to assess a company's environment. They are concerned that the number of SANTap ITLs is about to reach the supported limits and would like recommendations.
They have an eight-node RecoverPoint cluster with SANTap running on their MDS-9222i switches with SSM cards. SAN-OS and SSI versions are installed in the switches.
Additional costs beyond license upgrades are not expected. What do you recommend?

A. Upgrade switches to the latest NX-OS and SSI and run SANTap using module 1.
B. Install one additional MSM 18/4 in each switch.
C. Run the refresh_santap_view command to purge stale ITLs from the system.
D. Remove the splitters from the application and rediscover them with a new fresh state.

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 2
You are implementing RecoverPoint with a Cisco SANTap splitter in CRR. RecoverPoint is unable to get the SCSI-2/SCSI-3 reservation information of a Microsoft Cluster server that is part of a consistency group, and volumes are getting a Reservation error. You are checking all the required zones and noticed a required zone is missing.
Which one is missing?

A. RPA to HBA
B. RPA to CVT
C. RPA to storage
D. RPA to AVT

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
A customer has two MDS 9000s. They are going to install the RecoverPoint with SANTap solution, so they will install one 18/4-port MSM on each switch.
Which formula is used to calculate AVT Reservation ITLs for the customer’s environment?

A. #AVT Reservation ITLs = #volumes
B. #AVT Reservation ITLs = #host ITLs x #RPA initiators x #RPAs
C. #AVT Reservation ITLs = 26 x # RPA initiators x #RPAs
D. #AVT Reservation ITLs = 0

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
You use a receiver determination to define one or more receivers for a sender communication component and an outbound service interface. You can make the receiver determination conditional on the value of a field in the payload.
What do you do to set up this content-based routing?

A. Write a value mapping function in the Enterprise Services Repository and import it into the Integration Builder.
B. Specify alternative identifiers in the definition of the party.
C. You can only set up content-based routing by using the Configuration Assistant.
D. Use the Condition Editor to enter conditions (XPATH/Context object) for routing.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
Process Integration provides a lot of flexibility during the mapping/transformation process from source document to target. This flexibility includes the usage of multiple mapping steps.
Which statement correctly describes the characteristics of combined mapping steps?

A. All of the mapping steps must be of one type of mapping, e.g. they must all be Message
Mapping, or they must all be XSLT mapping.
B. Multiple mapping steps can be used, only by using Java mapping, due to Java's ability to access internal mapping programs.
C. Only by using XSLT mapping can we use multiple mapping steps. This is based on using "includes" of multiple XSLT's within the mapping process.
D. Any mapping method can be used with any combination. E.g. you can create a graphical Message Mapping followed by Java and XSLT mapping.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
You are developing a Message Mapping. In the mapping description, the source values for the target elements first name, middle name and last name are all assigned to the same source element (e.g. name). This results in a repeating occurrence for this source element.
Which standard function would you recommend for mapping the repeating element 'name' in the source to the specific fields (e.g. first name, middle name and last name) in the target structure?

A. There is no such standard function in Process Integration, you would need to write a user defined function.
B. You can use the "CopyValue" function in the Constant function group.
C. You can use the "SplitByValue" function in the Node function group.
D. You can use the "ValueMapping" function in the Conversions function group.

Answer: B

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1.You can generate training proposals for employees if Personnel Development isintegrated with which of the following? (Choose the correct answer)
A. Compensation management
B. ESS
C. SAP BW
D. Time and Event Management

Answer: D


2.Which of the following are examples of employee time data? (Choose all thatapply)
A. Leave
B. Illness
C. Substitutions
D. Business trips

Answer: A,B,C,D


3.Which of the following are CATS user interfaces? (Choose all that apply)
A. CATS Notebook
B. CATS time clock
C. CATS regular
D. CATS classic
E. CATS portal solution

Answer: A,C,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.
B. Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a
bottleneck.
C. Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.
D. Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

A. By providing training in the payroll domain
B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

A. A person with the ability to complete tasks
B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Very High (Priority 1) messages that are opened outside normal business hours are automatically sent to SAP.
Where can the business hours be maintained for each customer organization?

A. Call the transaction BP and open the business partner of type Organization.
B. Call the transaction SPRO.
C. Call the transaction BUSINESS_HOURS.
D. Call the transaction BUS_HOU.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
Where do you find the declaration of global data objects in an ABAP program? (Choose two)

A. Anywhere in the program.
B. At the beginning of any processing block.
C. At the beginning of a report program.
D. In the program's Top-Include.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following terms would be considered hits, if you performed a Note Search on'integra*'? (Choose two)

A. Integration
B. Integrity
C. Integral
D. Integer

Answer: A,C

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C-SRM-70 SAP Certified Application Associate - Supplier Relationship Management with SAP SRM 7.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)

A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts

Answer: A,D


QUESTION NO: 2
What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?

A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)

A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company

Answer: A,B

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C-TB1200-07 SAP Certified Implementation Consultant SAP Business One 2007 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
You are responsible for the prices of your sales items. The SAP Business One system offers a lot of functions related to item prices. Which of the following statements are true regarding pricing in SAP Business One?

A. In the SAPBusines One system, prices for items are defined in price lists.
B. A price list is assigned to a business partner.
C. When you add a sales order in the SAP Business One system, the price defaults to the price defined in the price list or the special price.
D. When you add a sales order in the SAP Business One system, you always enter the price manually per item.
E. When you add a sales order in the SAP Business One system, you can change the default price list in the document.

Answer: A,B,C,D,E


QUESTION NO: 2
You receive a call requesting an order of 10 pallets from Lee Imports. Lee Imports is currently set up as a lead in the master data. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You may create sales orders, deliveries and invoices for this business partner.
B. You can create a sales quotation but must convert the lead to a customer before creating a sales order.
C. You can create a sales order for this business partner but cannot bill them without converting the lead to a customer.
D. You can only create activities and sales opportunities with leads.

Answer: C



QUESTION NO: 3
Which report will allow you to value your inventory and review differences that would occur if you used a different costing method from the one defined globally for your items?

A. Items list
B. Inventory Posting Report
C. Inventory Valuation Report
D. Last Prices Report

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
When two different keys encrypt a plaintext message into the same
ciphertext, this situation is known as:
A. Cryptanalysis.
B. Public key cryptography.
C. Hashing.
D. Key clustering.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
What do the message digest algorithms MD2, MD4 and MD5 have in
common?
A. They are all used in the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA).
B. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 128-bits.
C. They all take a message of arbitrary length and produce a message
digest of 160-bits.
D. They are all optimized for 32-bit machines.
Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following items BEST describes the standards addressed
by Title II, Administrative Simplification, of the Health Insurance
Portability and Accountability Act (US Kennedy-Kassebaum Health
Insurance and Portability Accountability Act -HIPAA-Public Law 104-19)?
A. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Security and Electronic
Signatures and Privacy
B. Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
C. Transaction Standards, to include Code Sets; Unique Health
Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
D. Unique Health Identifiers; Security and Electronic Signatures and Privacy
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
You have imported models from the development system. What is the recommended way to activate dependent models in SAP HANA?

A. Use the Activate with History function.
B. Use the Where-Used List function.
C. Use the Cascade Activate function.
D. Activate each view manually.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which SAP BusinessObjects reporting tool should you use to answer ad-hoc questions and interact with shared information?

A. Crystal Reports
B. Dashboards
C. Explorer
D. WebIntelligence

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
How can you assess the quality of the loaded data in SAP HANA? (Choose two)

A. Configure the SAP Landscape Transformation tool to implement the data quality process.
B. Compare data from reports in SAP BusinessObjects against the SAP HANA
_SYS_STATISTICS table.
C. Perform master data quality checks in SAP ERP prior to replication in SAP HANA.
D. Compare reports in SAP BusinessObjects against source data for specific selections.

Answer: C,D


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CISA Isaca CISA our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a characteristic of timebox management?

A. Not suitable for prototyping or rapid application development (RAD)
B. Eliminates the need for a quality process
C. Prevents cost overruns and delivery delays
D. Separates system and user acceptance testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Timebox management, by its nature, sets specific time and cost boundaries. It is very suitable for prototyping and RAD, and integrates system and user acceptance testing, but does not eliminate the need for a quality process.


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following should an IS auditor review to gain an understanding of the effectiveness of controls over the management of multiple projects?

A. Project database
B. Policy documents
C. Project portfolio database
D. Program organization

Answer: C

Explanation:
A project portfolio database is the basis for project portfolio management. It includes project data, such as owner, schedules, objectives, project type, status and cost. Project portfolio management requires specific project portfolio reports. A project database may contain the above for one specific project and updates to various parameters pertaining to the current status of that single project. Policy documents on project management set direction for the design, development, implementation and monitoring of the project. Program organization is the team required (steering committee, quality assurance, systems personnel, analyst, programmer, hardware support, etc.) to meet the delivery objective of the project.


QUESTION NO: 3
To minimize the cost of a software project, quality management techniques should be applied:

A. as close to their writing (i.e., point of origination) as possible.
B. primarily at project start-up to ensure that the project is established in accordance with
organizational governance standards.
C. continuously throughout the project with an emphasis on finding and fixing defects primarily during testing to maximize the defect detection rate.
D. mainly at project close-down to capture lessons learned that can be applied to future projects.

Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
A common concern with poorly written web applications is that they can allow an attacker
to:

A. gain control through a buffer overflow.
B. conduct a distributed denial of service (DoS) attack.
C. abuse a race condition.
D. inject structured query language (SQL) statements.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Structured query language (SQL) injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities. Buffer overflows and race conditions are very difficult to find and exploit on web applications. Distributed denial of service (DoS) attacks have nothing to do with the quality of a web application.

QUESTION: 2
Which of the following would be of GREATEST importance to the security manager in
determining whether to accept residual risk?

A. Historical cost of the asset
B. Acceptable level of potential business impacts
C. Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls
D. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The security manager would be most concerned with whether residual risk would be reduced by a greater amount than the cost of adding additional controls. The other choices, although relevant, would not be as important.


QUESTION: 3
A project manager is developing a developer portal and requests that the security manager assign a public IP address so that it can be accessed by in-house staff and by external consultants outside the organization's local are network (LAN). What should the security manager do FIRST?

A. Understand the business requirements of the developer portal
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment of the developer portal
C. Install an intrusion detection system (IDS)
D. Obtain a signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA) from the external consultants before
allowing external access to the server

Answer: A

Explanation:
The information security manager cannot make an informed decision about the request
without first understanding the business requirements of the developer portal. Performing a vulnerability assessment of developer portal and installing an intrusion detection system
(IDS) are best practices but are subsequent to understanding the requirements. Obtaining a signed nondisclosure agreement will not take care of the risks inherent in the organization's application.


QUESTION: 4
A mission-critical system has been identified as having an administrative system account
with attributes that prevent locking and change of privileges and name. Which would be the BEST approach to prevent successful brute forcing of the account?
A. Prevent the system from being accessed remotely
B. Create a strong random password
C. Ask for a vendor patch
D. Track usage of the account by audit trails

Answer: B

Explanation:
Creating a strong random password reduces the risk of a successful brute force attack by
exponentially increasing the time required. Preventing the system from being accessed
remotely is not always an option in mission-critical systems and still leaves local access
risks. Vendor patches are not always available. Tracking usage is a detective control and will not prevent an attack.

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QUESTION NO: 1
In which of the following circumstances can functions be controlled by the item category? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. If an item is relevant for billing.
B. If the availability check is performed.
C. If schedule line items are allowed.
D. If an item is relevant for rejection and a reason for rejection is assigned to it.
E. If an item is relevant for pricing.

Answer: A,C,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following document flows describes a possible standard sales process?

A. Inquiry - Delivery - Transfer order - Post goods issue - Invoice - Accounting document
B. Standard order with reference to an inquiry - Delivery - Transfer order - Post goods issue - Invoice - Accounting document
C. Quotation - Delivery - Transfer order - Post goods issue - Invoice - Accounting document
D. Release order with reference to a previous delivery - Delivery - Transfer order - Post goods issue - Invoice - Accounting document

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
In which of the following ways can you use the document flow?

A. You can navigate directly to individual documents in change mode.
B. You can change any existing target documents without affecting the status in the source document.
C. You can review how documents and items of a sales process are linked.
D. You can reset the status of any document in order to redo the entire process.

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Marcy is the business analyst for her organization. She is completing the business analysis task of defining the business needs. She has the business goals and objectives and the requirements stated documentation. What must she confirm about the requirements stated documentation before defining the business need based on her analysis?

A. The requirements must reflect actual business requirements, not a description of the solutions.
B. The requirements must contain no or little risks.
C. The requirements must reflect proposed solutions as part of alternative identification.
D. The requirements must be compatible with the refinement of the business goals and objectives.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
Bob and Susan are business analysts for their organization. They are examining two materials that could be used in an upcoming project. They are testing the materials and measuring the results of each test to compare the materials to each other. This process will help Bob and Susan determine which material is best for their upcoming project. What type of process are Bob and Susan completing with these materials?

A. Feasibility study
B. Stress test
C. Alternative identification
D. Benchmarking

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
You are the business analyst for your organization. You are working with several IT professionals to determine all of the connected systems in your organization. You are creating a mapping of the servers, workstations, printers, and other connected devices and their purposes for an analysis of how information is input, processed, stored, and output from each system. What business analysis process are you completing?

A. Networking topology mapping
B. Data dictionary and glossary creation
C. Data flow diagram
D. Prototype

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What are the benefits of using the accrual engine? (Choose three)

A. The accrual engine calculates the accrual amounts automatically.
B. The accrual engine supports parallel accounting.
C. The accrual engine can correct accruals in the previous month even if that period is closed.
D. The accrual engine is client-independent.
E. The accrual engine can simulate planned future accruals.

Answer: A,B,E


QUESTION NO: 2
When dealing with Financial Statement Versions (FSVs), how do you ensure that the requirements of the various target groups (for example auditors, tax authorities, and banks) are satisfied?

A. Create different FSVs based on the needs of the target group.
B. Create different versions of the same FSV.
C. Create one FSV and enhance it with different sets of notes.
D. Create one FSV, then save different variants based on the needs of the various groups.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer wants to use the Closing Cockpit for period end closing.
What major benefits of the Closing Cockpit do you highlight? (Choose two)

A. It closes the posting period automatically at the last day of the period.
B. It optimizes legacy data transfer.
C. It provides a complete documentation of the activities performed at period end closing.
D. It enables the use of a task list covering all closing activities.

Answer: C,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
A new material with the following properties is to be recorded in SAP ECC. the material is kept in stock, is externally procured, and is used as a component in the bills of material for various final products. However, this material may not be purchased directly.
Which standard SAP material type would you use?

A. HAWA (trading good)
B. FERT (finished product)
C. NLAG (non-stock material)
D. ROH (raw material)

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following activities is necessary for the capacity availability check to be carried out automatically when a production order is released?

A. Activate the availability check and assign a checking rule to the work center for the operation to be checked.
B. Activate the availability check and assign the check control to the plant.
C. Activate the availability check and assign an overall profile in check control for the business function order release.
D. Activate the availability check and assign an availability checking group to the material master for the product to be produced.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
A customer has been using planning strategies 30 (production by lots) and 10 (anonymous maketo-stock production) in SAP ECC. The customer wishes to move in part to planning strategy 40(planning with final assembly). The issue of consumption has an effect here for the first time.
Which properties apply for consumption with planning strategy 40? (Choose two.)

A. Consumption can lead to an increase of the originally planned overall production quantity.
B. Consumption can result in the subsequent specification and adjustment of planning elements in terms of quantity and date, by means of customer orders that arrive.
C. Consumption can reduce the originally planned production quantity.
D. Consumption creates a static and binding assignment, between the planned independent requirements recorded in advance and the customer requirements that arrive, for the entire procurement process.
Answer: A,B

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QUESTION NO: 1
You create a purchase order for a foreign vendor. In what language are messages for this
purchase order printed?

A. In the language in which you are logged on to the system
B. In the language defined in the vendor master record
C. In the language of the purchase order header
D. In the language defined in the output determination Customizing settings

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which procurement element can be created in Purchasing with automatic purchase order
generation?

A. Delivery schedules
B. Contracts
C. Invoicing plans
D. Contract release orders

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
What characterizes an item category in purchasing? (Choose two.)

A. New item categories can be created in Customizing.
B. The item category contains a default value for the invoice receipt indicator in a purchase order item.
C. Any item category can be used in combination with any account assignment category in a purchase order.
D. The name of an item category can be changed in Customizing.

Answer: B,D

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1.Your organization uses SAP ERP powered by SAP NetWeaver.
Which of the following are subareas of the People Integration subcomponent of SAP
NetWeaver?(Choose three)
A. Enterprise Portal
B. Collaboration
C. Business Intelligence
D. Multi-Channel Access
E. Process Integration
F. Exchange Infrastructure

Answer: A,B,D


2.You are creating a query using the Query Designer, in SAP Business Intelligence. The Query Designer is divided into subareas.
Which of the following are subareas in the Query Designer?(Choose two)
A. Rows
B. Preview
C. Headings
D. Selection criteria

Answer: A,B


3.You are designing a query in SAP Business Intelligence. When you are viewing the query results, you want to be able to drill down by the characteristics product and product line.
To which subarea would you drag and drop these characteristics in the Query Designer?
A. Free characteristics
B. Filter
C. Rows
D. Columns

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Carryforward of the unused budget to the next fiscal year: Validate the following statements:
A. Commitments can also be carried forward.along with the budget carryforward.
B. You can carryforward unused budgets even if the order is in closed status or flagged for deletion.
C. You can return funds to the old fiscal year upto the amount of budget actually carried forward.
D. You can carry forward unused budgets to the next fiscal year
E. You can execute carryforward for more than once in a fiscal year. Each time the program carries forward only the budgets previously not carried forward.

Answer: C,D,E


QUESTION NO: 2
A budget profile needs to be assigned to the order type
A. False
B. True

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
Budget Currencies: Validate the following statements.
A. Budget items are converted and saved automatically in Controlling Area Current and the Object currency.
B. If you use budgeting in controlling area currency then only Controlling area currency can be used for budgeting.
C. Object currency is stored in the Master Data of the object
D. You can chose different currencies to enter you budget.
E. If you chose Object currency then only Object currency will be used for budgeting.
F. in R/3 system the availability control function is available for all currencies.
G. You should chose in the budget profile of the order type or the project profile in which currency the budget items for the order would be entered.

Answer: A,B,C,D,E,G

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QUESTION NO: 1
There are different ways of posting retirements:
A. With or without revenue (scrapping)
B. As full or partial retirement
C. With or without customer
D. As mass retirement
E. As retirement of several assets
F. With or without vendor (non-integrated)

Answer: A,B,C,D,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Important ALV functions
A. Its user-friendly characteristics support the dynamic creation of layouts.
B. There is a new graphical design, which makes it even simpler to process and display lists and reports using the List Viewer grid control.

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 3
Establish the dimensions that can be used in the definition of validations, substitutions, and rules
A. Boolean classes or boolean classes or boolean class

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
A commit work is issued in a transaction that employs asynchronous updating, what kes place.(More than one answer is correct)
A. SAP LUW is concluded
B. User is notified of updates
C. Update requests are processed
D. Dabase commit is triggered

Answer: A,C,D


QUESTION NO: 2
In what case are bstrips good candidates?
(More than one answer is correct)
A. When Users need the ability to navigate freely between components
B. When Navigation between components is predetermined in a fixed manner
C. When several components of an application need to be displayed on one screen

Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 3
What technique is used to ensure remote functions are still processed even if the partner
computer is not active?
A. Asynchronous RFC
B. Synchronous RFC
C. Transactional RFC

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
The implementation consultant has added 20 user-defined fields to the header area of various marketing documents. However, the client lead is confused because she sees all the fields every time she opens a new sales order. She only wants to see the fields for the document she is working on. What can the consultant suggest to help?
A. The client lead can sort user-defined fields, so that the fields required for the currently opened
document appear first. This only affects the current user.
B. Using Form Settings, user-defined fields that are not relevant for a document can be hidden
from the document, just like ordinary fields.
C. Using authorization groups, assign relevant user-defined fields to the client lead. All nonassigned fields will be hidden in the display.
D. Organize the user-defined fields into categories. The client lead can then select the category that applies to the marketing document she is viewing.
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
You have been doing business with a vendor, ZZ Supplies, for over a year. Now the vendor asks to place an order as a customer. What do you need to do to create the sales order properly?
A. Because this sales order is an exception, use the 'A/R Invoice + Payment' transaction to enter the sales order in the account for one-time customers.
B. Enter the sales order as a customer sales order with the vendor business partner number entered in the customer code field.
C. Change the business partner type of the vendor to 'Customer', enter the sales order, and then change the business partner type back to 'Vendor'.
D. Create a new customer master record and enter this new customer code in the sales order.
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Your customer needs a way to make the Integrated Planning more flexible. You have suggested using variables. Which of the following comments regarding variables are correct? (Choose three)

A. They parameterize characteristic values in filters, queries, functions, characteristic
relationships, and data slices.
B. Variables created in filters can also be used in queries. Therefore, they are shareable objects, and result in less configuration.
C. A selling point of variables used in data slices and characteristic relationships is that they 'popup'.
This allows the user to make their own derivation or data lock selections.
D. Users can personalize their variable values and save them as variants.

Answer: A,B,D



QUESTION NO: 2
In your planning project you have a basic InfoCube containing the actual data and a Real Time InfoCube containing the plan data. You want to use actual and plan data at the same time in your Integrated Planning scenario. Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two)

A. You can create an aggregation level on the Real Time InfoCube and combine it with the actual InfoCube in a MultiProvider. On the MultiProvider you can create a planning function that copies the actual data to the plan InfoCube.
B. You can include the actual InfoCube and the plan InfoCube in a MultiProvider, create an aggregation level on the MultiProvider, and create a distribution function that distributes plan data according to the actual data.
C. You can create an aggregation level on the Real Time InfoCube and combine it with the actual InfoCube in a MultiProvider. On the MultiProvider you can create a plan query that shows actual and plan data.
D. Since only Real Time InfoCubes can be used in Integrated Planning, you must use a Data Transfer Process to move your actual data to the Real Time InfoCube. Then you plan on the Real Time InfoCube.

Answer: B,C

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Question: 1
The developer received a file lock error when attempting to overwrite a published PowerCube.
Which services must be stopped to be able to overwrite a published Powercube?
A. Report and Report batch services.
B. Cognos 8 and Delivery services.
C. Dispatcher and Presentation services.
D. Content Manager and Monitor services.
Answer: A


Question: 2
At the beginning of the fiscal year, the Camping Equipment product line reduced the number of products that are being sold. What can be done to remove the inactive categories that are no longer needed in the model?
A. Set the level inclusion to suppress categories that are not needed.
B. Incrementally update the Powercube.
C. Prevent the automatic generation of new categories.
D. Generate the categories.
Answer: A


Question: 3
what does the developer specify when creating a test build that uses a subset of the source data?
A. The number of categories.
B. The dimensions to include in the cube.
C. The number of records.
D. The measures to include in the cube.
Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
How do you allow data entry and posting in a BPC Excel sheet?
A. Add a row to show the variance of the plan.
B. Use a hierarchical structure for member values.
C. Set the workbook option to 'Refresh automatically'.
D. Use base members.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
What is displayed in an EVDRE report when 'Account1, Account2' is in the PageKeyRange, with entity in the rows and time in columns?
A. Aggregated data for Account1 and Account2
B. All Accounts other than Account1 and Account2
C. Account1 and Account2 in separate rows
D. Account1 and Account2 in separate columns

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
You want to format your account members dynamically in an EVDRE report.
In which column do you have to enter the value 'NUMBERFORMAT=ACCOUNT.FORMAT'?
A. PARAMETERS
B. CRITERIA
C. FORMAT
D. USE

Answer: D

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66.Which customer specific files must be saved during an online database backup to be able to restore the Oracle database to a consistent state?
A. The Oracle executables, database parameter file, and the tablespace data files.
B. The Oracle online redo log files and the database control file.
C. The archived log files, database control file and the Oracle executables.
D. The tablespace data files, database control file, and all database redo logs written during the
online backup.
E. The tablespace data files, database control file, and the database parameter file.

Answer: D


1.The physical separation of database logs from their mirror copies means?
A. Using physically separate partitions of a physical disk.
B. Using physically separate disks.
C. Using physically separate disks in the same logical device group.
D. Using generic database utilities to split the flow of data between randomly chosen operating
system directories.
E. Use of database specific utilities to fork log backups to 2 physically separate backup media.

Answer: B


2.In SAP system with Oracle, special operating system users created during the installation have
privileges for administration and maintenance of the Oracle database.
A. True
B. False

Answer: A


3.What action needs to be taken when Oracle returns an ORA-1 653 error, failure to allocate an extent for a table n a specific tablespace?
A. The tablespace should be moved to a faster disk so that Oracle can find the extents quicker.
B. The tablespace size should be increased by adding I or more datafiles.
C. This is an Oracle internal error message which should be registered with Oracle immediately.
D. The database must be shutdown immediately to avoid damage.
E. The affected table should be dropped to avoid similar problems in the future.

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
For which of the following options do you need to install and configure SAProuter? (Choose two)

A. EarlyWatch session done remotely by an employee of SAP
B. Create a support message in case of problems with the SAP system
C. Remote Consulting from SAP
D. Connection to http://help.sap.com.

Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following are existing variants of SAP GUI? (Choose three)

A. SAP GUI for Linux
B. SAP GUI for Windows
C. SAP GUI for Java
D. SAP GUI for HTML

Answer: B,C,D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement regarding front end printing with SAP NetWeaver AS ABAP is correct?

A. It is not possible to configure an output device for front end printing with SAP GUI for Java.
B. If you want to configure an output device for front end printing with SAP GUI for Windows, you should choose access method G.
C. If you want to configure an output for front end printing with SAP GUI for HTML, you have to choose access method G.

Answer: B

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BH0-012 The Foundation–ITIL (2012 Onwards) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest BH0-012 ISEB it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
The BEST description of an incident is:

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution;
Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found

A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above

Answer: D

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Practicetest BH0-010 ISTQB it-exams

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Practicetest BH0-010 ISTQB it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is true?

A. A test condition specifies input values and expected results; a test case combines one or more
test conditions
B. A test condition may be derived from requirements or specifications; a test procedure specifies
the sequence of action for the execution of a test
C. A test case specifies the sequence of execution of test conditions; a test procedure specifies
test pre-conditions and post-conditions
D. A test case specifies input values and expected results; a test procedure may be derived
from requirements or specifications

Answer: B



QUESTION 2
Which two of the following are common attributes of maintenance testing?

a) It is carried out to ensure that the system will be reliable once in service.
b) It includes regression testing.
c) It requires the use of fully defined specifications.
d) It can include testing of a system after migration from one platform to another.

A. a and b
B. a and c
C. c and d
D. b and d

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the following



How many MORE test cases are required?

A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will be used
to provide 100% decision coverage
C. None, existing test cases can be used
D. One more test case will be required for 100% statement coverage

Answer: C



QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to be an objective of a pilot project to introduce a test tool?

A. To assess if the test tool brings benefits at reasonable cost
B. To ensure that developers will use the test tool
C. To ensure that the time spent testing and the cost of testing is reduced
D. To assess if everyone in theorganisation can be trained prior to roll-out

Answer: A

Practicetest BH0-010 ISTQB it-exams

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Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams

BCP-211 Supporting BlackBerry Devices in an Enterprise Environment our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
.A BlackBerry device user is trying to upgrade her version of BlackBerry Device Software and wants to verify that the latest version of BlackBerry Device Software has been installed on her computer. Which two methods will help determine what version of BlackBerry Device Software is currently installed on the computer? (Choose two.)

A. Open Add or Remove Programs > Select the BlackBerry Device Software
for the BlackBerry device model > Select Click here for Support Information
B. Open Microsoft Windows Device Manager > Expand RIM Device > Right-click on BlackBerry Device > Select Properties
C. Launch BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Select Help > SelectAbout Desktop Manager > Select the Device Software tab
D. Run GETBBVERSION.EXE from the command prompt
E. Open DEVICEINFO.INI from C.\Program files\ ResearchIn Motion\BlackBerry

Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 2
.When the BlackBerry Smart Card Reader is in a pairing state, it displays the reader ID and the LED displays as which of the following? (Choose one.)

A. Flashing blue
B. Solid blue
C. Flashing green
D. Solid green
E. Flashing red
F. Solid red

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
.While a BlackBerry device user is attempting to synchronize data files, the following error
message is displayed. Online connection to your mail server is unavailable Which two actions will best resolve this error? (Choose two.)

A. Confirm that the BlackBerry device user has a valid connection to his work network.
B. Perform a cleanuninstall of BlackBerry Desktop Manager and upgrade to the latest version.
C. Confirm that the BlackBerry device is connected to BlackBerry Desktop Manager.
D. Check if the BlackBerry device user is able to send and receive email messages.
E. Contact the administrator of the BlackBerry device users messaging server to verify that services are functioning as expected.

Answer: A,E

Practicetest BCP-211 BlackBerry it-exams

Practicetest adwords-search Google it-exams

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adwords-search GoogleSearch Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest adwords-search Google it-exams


Q1. Which of the bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on clicks?

A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Automatic CPC bidding
D. Campaigns

Answer: C


Q2. Which of the following policies prohibits advertising if the business model is deemed unacceptable according to AdWords Terms and Conditions?

A. Link policies
B. Content policies
C. Quality policies
D. Editorial and format policies

Answer: B


Q3. Which of the following terms refers to the amount of time it takes for a user to view the landing page after clicking an ad?

A. Load time
B. Click-through rate
C. ROI
D. Quality score

Answer: A

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Practicetest adwords-reporting Google it-exams

adwords-reporting Google Reporting and Analysis Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest adwords-reporting Google it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
When you begin to work with the Google Website Optimizer there are two essential pages you need to
identify. What are the two pages?
A. Landing page and conversion page
B. Landing page and conversion page
C. Test page and live page
D. Test page and conversion page
Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
There are three primary goals for reporting and reviewing reports in Google Analytics according to Google.
Which of the following is NOT a primary goal of using Google Analytics?
A. Driving valuable traffic
B. Maximizing conversions of your website
C. Increasing web revenue
D. Decreasing unnecessary costs
Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
You have a website that informs readers about your business, offers a newsletter signup form, allows
readers to purchase software online, and includes a "contact us" form so visitors can ask for more
information. Which conversion tracking purpose would be most appropriateyou’re your web page "contact
us" if you wanted to track statistics?
A. View of a key page
B. Other
C. Leads
D. Sign-ups
Answer: C

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Practicetest adwords-display Google it-exams

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adwords-display Google Display Exam Practice Test our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest adwords-display Google it-exams


QUESTION 1
Nancy would like to create a display ad for the Google Content Network, but she doesn't have
image-editing software. Which of the following is the recommended for Nancy to create a display ad for the Google Content Network?

A. Use the Display Ad Builder.
B. Hire a designer to create the display ad.
C. Use the Adobe Ad Builder.
D. Use a text ad.

Answer: A



QUESTION 2
Why is it important for a Google AdWords ad on the Google Content Network to be marked as
Family Safe?

A. So that the ad would not be blocked by Google and Yahoo
B. To reduce the cost per click
C. Many Google Content Network partners only accept family safe ads
D. So that the images can show in search results

Answer: C



QUESTION 3
Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the
contextual targeting?

A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products
for sale so his ads will show on related Websites.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.

Answer: C

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Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams

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Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams


QUESTION 1
You have a client that has reviewed a recent performance report you've supplied. The client wants to make several changes to the Google AdWords campaign. When can the changes be implemented?

A. On any day other than the day a billing cycle ends or starts
B. Any time outside of three days of a new billing cycle
C. Within seven days of a new billing cycle
D. Any time

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Consider an advertiser that is trying to sell more coffee beans. The advertiser has identified keywords for the ad groups: gourmet coffee beans, organic coffee beans, and French roast beans.
Which keyword wouldn't be a good choice to include in the ad group gourmet coffee beans?

A. Gourmet coffee
B. French roast coffee beans
C. Specialty coffee
D. Gourmet coffee beans

Answer: B　　


QUESTION 3
Jan creates a Google AdWords ad for her company. She wants to avoid showing her ad when users search for free, cheap, or crack. How can she do this with a keyword match type?

A. Jan will need to a broad match, but add the negative qualifier for each keyword she doesn't wantherad associated with.
B. Jan will need to create a negative match for the searched phrase that includes free, cheap, orrack.
C. Jan can only do this if she creates an exact match, in quotes, for every approved keyword.
D. Jan will need to create an exact match for the phrases she will allow her ad to be displayed with.

Answer: B

Practicetest adwords-fundamentals Google it-exams

Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams

A00-281 SAS Certified Clinical Trials Programmer Using SAS 9 Accelerated Version our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which CDISC standard is concerned with the development of simplified case report forms?
A. Clinical Data Acquisition Standards Harmonization (CDASH)
B. Operational Data Model (ODM)
C. Study Data Tabulation Model (SDTM)
D. Trial Design Model (TDM)

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
The purpose of the ADaM model is to provide a framework that:
A. enables the tabulation of the raw source data
B. enables the creation of study patient profiles
C. enables the statistical analysis of the data
D. can be used to generate the CDISC ODM

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Where would you store a value collected on a case report form but not defined in an SDTM domain?
A. RELREC
B. DM
C. SUPPQUAL
D. SC

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-281 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams

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Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A SAS administrator has performed the "Clear Projects" action to remove the lock on a SAS Data Integration Studio job called "Create Tables" that some user has checked out in their project repository. What will be the outcome of this action on the user's project repository?

A. It will become empty and all new and checked out metadata objects will revert to the not checked out state.
B. It will only contain the new metadata objects. All checked out metadata objects will revert to the not checked out state.
C. It will become empty and the DI job called "Create Tables" will no longer be in a checked out state.
D. It will become empty and will not be accessible until the administrator grants permissions for it to be used again.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement best describes the DataFlux Integration Server?

A. An application server that executes service requests based on Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to call dfPower Architect or dfPower Profile jobs.
B. A plug-in to SAS Data Integration Studio allowing you to design jobs specialized for data cleansing operations.
C. An application interface that allows you to builddfPower Architect and dfPower Profile jobs specialized for data cleansing operations.
D. A third party server defined in the SAS metadata repository that allows you to build flows integrating multiple jobs and establishing job dependencies within the flow.

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
The purpose of change management in SAS Data Integration Studio is to manage:

A. metadata objects across metadata servers
B. metadata objects within a logged on user's personal folder
C. metadata objects within a metadata server
D. metadata objects within a logged on user's Checkouts Tree

Answer: C


Practicetest A00-260 SAS it-exams

Practicetest A00-250 SAS it-exams

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A00-250 SAS Platform Administration for SAS9 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest A00-250 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A platform administrator used operating system commands to backup the metadata repositories and repository manager in a SAS environment. When the platform administrator attempted to restore the SAS environment, the backup files were unusable. What is the most likely cause of the backup files being unusable?

A. The metadata server was stopped when the backup was taken.
B. The metadata server was Online when the backup was taken.
C. The metadata server was only paused to an Offline state when the backup was taken.
D. The metadata server configuration file omaconfig.xml is not included in a backup initiated by operating system commands.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
A platform administrator needs to restore backup files to a running metadata server. Which macro can the platform administrator use to perform this task?

A. OMAREORG
B. OMARESTORE
C. OMACONFIG
D. OMABAKUP

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
The metadata server is stopped. What will be the result when operating system commands are used to backup the metadata repositories and repository manager?

A. The backup files will be unusable.
B. The backup files will not include metadata configuration files.
C. The backup files should be usable for a restore.
D. The backup files will include metadata configuration files only.

Answer: C

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Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams

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Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams


QUESTION 1
Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.

Answer: B



QUESTION 2
The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below:
ONE TWO
# Variable Type Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8
1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16
1 year Num 8 0
Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR.
The following SAS program is submitted:
data three;
merge one two;
by year;
run;
Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?

A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.

Answer: B



QUESTION 3
Given the following SAS statement:

%let idcode = Prod567;
Which one of the following statements stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?

A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-212 SAS it-exams

Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams

3600 Avaya Ethernet Routing Switch Implementation and Maintenance Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
With release 4.0 or higher software on the Ethernet routing switch (ERS) 8300, an advanced routing license is required to enable certain features.
Which two statements ant true about the Advanced Routing License process and supported features for the ERS 8300? (Choose two.)

A. the Advanced Routing License supports QoS, SMLT, VRRP and OSPF
B. the Advanced Routing License supports SMLT, VRRP, OSPF, PIM-SM. and SLPP
C. To protect against security breaches, the ERS 8300 allows only a primary path for the license file
D. To protect against system flash failure, the ERS 8300 allows a primary, secondary, and tertiary path for the license file.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 2
Consider the fallowing port conditions on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8648GTRS
10/100/1000 Ethernet I/O module left LED -green Right LED - flashing green.
What is the status of the port?

A. The link speed is 100 Mbps. and the port is disabled.
B. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is disabled
C. The link speed is 100 Mbps. and the port is passing traffic.
D. The link speed is 1000 Mbps. and the port is passing traffic.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
A network has some Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 5500 switches licensed at the advanced level for Release 6 2 A technician implementing Protocol independent Multicast - Sparse Mode (PIMSM)
Which licensing requirement applies?

A. the PIM-SM is already covered by the existing advanced feature license
B. the PIM-SM con only be licensed on ERS 5510 models
C. the PIM-SM is included m the base license with release 6.2
D. A Premier license is needed

Answer: C

Practicetest 3600 Avaya it-exams

Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams

A00-211 SAS Base Programming for SAS 9 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What is the purpose or the MISSOVER option on the INFILE statement?

A. It prevents SAS from loading a new record when the end of the current record is reached.
B. It enables SAS to scan the input data records until the character string that is specified in the@‘character-string’ expression is round.
C. It enables SAS to continue to read the next input data record if it does not find values in the current input tine for all the variables in the statement.
D. It causes the DATA step to stop processing if an INPUT statement reaches the end of the current record without finding values for all variables in the statement.

Answer: A



QUESTION NO: 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
set work.staff (keep = jansales febsales marsales);
array diff_sales{3} difsales1 - difsales3;
array monthly{3} jansales febsales marsales;
run;
What new variables are created?

A. JANSALES, FEBSALES and MARSALES
B. MONTHLY1, MONTHLY2 and MONTHLY3
C. DIFSALES1, DIFSALES2 and DIFSALES3
D. DIFF_SALES1, DIFF_SALES2 and DIFF_SALES3

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
What describes the SAS automatic _ERRDR_ variable?

A. The _ERROR_ variable contains the values ‘TRUE’ or ‘FALSE.’
B. The _ERROR variable maintains a count of the number of data errors.
C. The _ERROR_ variable can be used in expressions or calculations in the DATA step.
D. The ERROR_variable contains the number or the observation that caused the error.

Answer: C

Practicetest A00-211 SAS it-exams

Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams

650-987 Cisco Data Center Unified Computing Sales Specialist Exam for SE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
How would you respond to an objection that a Cisco Unified Computing System solution is expensive and may not have a good ROI?

A. Competitive solutions use less physical cabling and thus have less redundancy.
B. Cisco UCS C-Series servers offer a cost-effective solution where customers buy only what they need, reducing upfront costs while offering integration possibilities in the future.
C. Cisco UCS C-Series servers allow easy integration with your existing server implementation by supporting legacy hardware such as RISC processors.
D. Cisco UCS C-Series servers reduce long-term TCO by storing excessive power in onboard batteries.

Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
With the Cisco UCS C-Series Servers, users experience a cost-effective solution, where they buy only what they need.
There is no need for addictional expenses and the upfront cost is reduced, while still offering integration possibilities in the future.


QUESTION 2
In a Cisco Unified Computing solution, which two actions are the easiest ways to increase connectivity throughput? (Choose two.)

A. Add additional Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect switches to the Cisco UCS cluster.
B. Move some servers into a separate Cisco UCS cluster.
C. Add additional servers in the Cisco UCS cluster.
D. Use additional uplinks on a Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O module.
E. Use two Cisco UCS 2104XP I/O modules per chassis.

Answer: DE

Explanation/Reference:
Each IOM provides eight internal backplane ports, four external fabric ports, and one internal management network. An individual IOM is connected via a physical fabric port to the fabric interconnects server port, and via a logical backplane port through the chassis midplane to each individual server blade.


QUESTION 3
The Intelligent Network can play a vital role in which three networking environments? (Choose three)

A. storage networking
B. application networking
C. data networking
D. wide-area networking
E. security networking
F. media networking

Answer: ABC

Practicetest 650-987 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 650-568 Cisco it-exams


650-568 Cisco Web Security Field Engineer Specialist our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-568 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which of these user ICAP?

A. anti-malware scanning
B. data loss prevention polices
C. decryption policies
D. CiscoIronPort Data Security policies

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
When do you need to configure the P1 interface?

A. whenever you have an upstream proxy
B. whenever you intend to deploy the L4TM in blocking mode
C. whenever you want to enable the WSA proxy
D. whenever you have a separate management VLAN orsubnetwork

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of these is a drawback in using McAfee heuristic scanning?

A. heuristic scanning cannot detect new malware with an unknown signature
B. heuristic scanning requires a separate license key
C. heuristic scanning increases the probability of false positives
D. heuristic scanning increases the probability of false negatives

Answer: C

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Practicetest 650-667 Cisco it-exams

650-667 Cisco SP Video Cable Access Networks Design Specialist for SE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 650-667 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What is the main difference between a video program in an ASI format versus a SDI format?

A. ASI contains only i program, SOI can contain multiple
B. ASI is a compressed format where SDI is uncompressed
C. ASI is over coax, SDI is not
D. SDI has audio channels

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following layers is the first layer in contribution solution architecture?

A. Optical network layer
B. The IP/MPLS core
C. The video adaptation layer
D. Customer Premises Layer

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
What is the primary advantage of MPEG-4 part 10 over MPEG-2?

A. MPEG 4 uses twice the bandwidth
B. MPEG 2 can have more programs
C. MPEG 2 can have less programs
D. MPEG 4 part 10 uses half the bandwidth

Answer: D

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650-378 ABNFEE Advanced Borderless Network Field Engineer Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is a powerful and flexible subsystem in Cisco IOS Software that provides real-time network event detection and onboard automation?

A. Cisco IOS EEM
B. Cisco IPS
C. Cisco Security Agent
D. Cisco ASA 5500 Series

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
What is a feature of Cisco Medianet?

A. It automates device configuration and registration.
B. It disables device asset tracking.
C. It allows manual configuration with SmartPorts.
D. It deploys complex access-switch QoS.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
What are the components of the Cisco Unified Wireless Network?

A. access points, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco Wireless Control System
B. access points, WAAS Express, Cisco Wireless Control System
C. Air Quality Index charts, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco Wireless Control System
D. access points, wireless LAN controllers, Cisco IronPort S-Series Web Security Appliance

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which combination of ports is available on the Cisco SPA 8800 voice gateway?
A. one station port and one trunk port (1xFXS and 1xFXO)
B. four station ports and four trunk ports (4xFXR and 4xFXO)
C. eight station ports (8xFXS)
D. two station ports (2xFXS)

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
What three features that are included with the purchase of a Cisco SA 520? (choose three)
A. ProtectLink Gateway
B. DMZ
C. business-grade firewall
D. VPN capabilities
E. Cisco Intrusion Prevention System
F. Cisco Small Business Pro Service

Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
Which three are components of the Cisco SMARTnet service? (Choose three.)
A. cases opened via e-mail or telephone at any time.
B. NBD callback from specialized engineers during regular business hours
C. advanced replacement on the next business day
D. Support for every Cisco product
E. support for low-end products only
F. immediate support from the Cisco TAC engineers

Answer: ACF

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650-196 SMB Solutions for Engineers our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two options are competitive advantages of Cisco RV Series Routers? (Choose two.)

A. provide a port to connect a fax machine
B. easy-to-use simplified configuration GUI
C. enhanced features: VLANs, ACL, QoS, IPv6, and cloud services (some models)
D. embedded wireless included with all routers
E. ProtectLink Web included with all routers

Answer: C,E


QUESTION NO: 2
Which two options are requirements of a Cisco Catalyst switch customer? (Choose two.)

A. easy-to-use graphical user interfaces
B. price conscious
C. readiness to invest
D. Small Business Support Center support
E. multiple management options

Answer: A,E


QUESTION NO: 3
Which three options are characteristics of Cisco RV Series Routers? (Choose three.)

A. Browser-based configuration
B. Hosted security
C. Integrated voice mail
D. Survivable remote site telephony
E. Virtual private network connectivity
F. Wired and wireless versions

Answer: A,E,F

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Practicetest 650-179 Cisco it-exams

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two competitive voice advantages does the Cisco Unified Communications 300 Series have over typical key system solutions?

A. call conferencing
B. integrated wireless
C. programmable soft keys
D. speed dial and caller ID
E. voice mail to email notification
Answer: B,E


QUESTION NO: 2
What it the best way to get Cisco OnPlus up and running for a customer?

A. Set up user licenses.
B. Install the software.
C. Plug into a switch port.
D. Set up a dedicated PC

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Cisco Business Edition 3000 supports a centralized call processing deployment model, which means that one system can support a company central site and several remote sites, including the central sites can be supported?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 15

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which three deployment scenarios does Cisco Configuration Assistant Support? (choose three)
A. Cisco SR500 in secure router mode, acting as a front end for Cisco Unified Communications 500
B. Cisco SR 500teleworker with Cisco Unified Communications 500 as VPN server
C. multi-site VPN with Cisco Unified Communications 500 platforms
D. centralized Cisco Unified Communications Manager VE with Cisco Unified Communications500 in SRST mode
E. redundant Cisco Unified Communications 500 with primary-to-backup failover
F. Cisco Unified Communications 500 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk

Answer: A,C,F


QUESTION NO: 2

What are three ways in which wireless is cost-effective? (Choose three.)
A. Save time and money by avoiding labor-intensive moves,adds, and changes
B. Less expensive to purchase and maintain
C. Reduce monthly Internet access costs over wired installation
D. Enable your friends to access the Internet while waiting for you
E. allow employees to be mobile and increase their productivity
F. save in cabling costs for new or unwired buildings

Answer: A,E,F


QUESTION NO: 3

What are two benefits of clustered access points on a small business network using the Cisco 500 Series Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. Rouge AP integration
B. Tri-band 11g single radios
C. Secure guest access
D. Single view to deploy and manage
E. Cisco IOS configuration

Answer: C,D

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650-148 ISSE Cisco IronPort Sales Specialist - Email our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
You have enabled LDAP to search a Microsoft 2003 AD server for valid mail addresses, which of the following two is a valid accept query? (Choose two.)

A. (|(Mail={a)(Proxyaddresses=smtp:fa}))
B. Maillocaladdress= smtp:{a}
C. (Proxyaddresses=smtp:{a})
D. Mailroutingaddress={a}
E. (Proxyaddresses={a})

Answer: C,D


QUESTION NO: 2
Which format must the x509 certificate be in for installing on an ESA?

A. PKCS
B. CRT
C. PEM
D. X500
E. CER

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
How would you configure the Recipient Access Table to accept all subdomains and the root domain mydomain.com?

A. Two entries: mydomain.com and '.mydomain.com
B. One entry: 'mydomain.com
C. One entry: mydomain.com
D. Two entries: mydomain.com and .mydomain.com

Answer: D

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Practicetest 650-153 Cisco it-exams

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QUESTION NO: 1
CORRECT TEXT
A newly installed C-160 needs to have its access to downloads.ironport.com verified. Perform a port level test from the CLI of the C-160 by using the command string in lowercase with the appropriate port number.

A. telnetdownloads.ironport.com443

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following vendors produce Anti-Virus engines for the C-Series? (Choose two.)

A. Sophos
B. MCAfee
C. BrightMail
D. TrendMicro
E. Symantec

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 3
Membership in which sender group will cause the C-Series to skip checking the SMTP envelope's"rcpt to" field against the RAT?

A. RELAYLIST
B. WHITELIST
C. BLACKLIST
D. SUSPECTLIST
E. UNKNOWNLIST

Answer: A
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642-993 Data Center Unified Computing Systems Design (DCUCD) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Virtual device contexts enable which three of these activities? (Choose three.)

A. secure delineation of administrative configurations
B. separation and distribution of hardware resources
C. ability to test configurations without impacting production systems
D. ability to run different operating systems on the same physical hardware
E. extension of link aggregation to two separate physical switches

Answer: A,B,C


QUESTION NO: 2
A jumbo frame-aware data center is often implemented to provide performance improvements in which two of these technologies? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. Fiber Channel
D. quality of service
E. VoIP

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 3
Which choice best describes NPV, with the connectivity of a Cisco UCS-B server connecting to a Fibre channel switch?

A. NPV allows a network-facing interface to proxy traffic from multiple servers onto a single link.
B. NPV allows local switching of Fibre Channel packets on the Cisco UCS 6100 Series Switches.
C. NPV load-balances traffic of a single server across multiple links.
D. NPV allows MAC-in-MAC encapsulation of Fibre Channel traffic for transport across a switch that is not a Cisco switch.

Answer: A

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646-205 Cisco Sales Expert our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Network management saves time and money by automating which two tasks? (Choose two.)

A. Configuring changes to hardware and software
B. Monitoring online purchasing
C. Monitoring user access to storage files
D. Monitoring and troubleshooting network devices

Answer: AD



QUESTION 2
What is the Cisco collaboration per-person licensing option that simplifies purchasing and provides customers with maximum flexibility?

A. Cisco Unified Collaboration Licensing
B. Cisco Unified Communications Software Subscription
C. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
D. Cisco User Connect Licensing

Answer: D



QUESTION 3
Which Cisco product is a software component that blocks unwanted connections and provides other gateway security functions for small business?

A. Cisco Internetwork Operating System (IOS) Firewall
B. Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS)
C. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
D. Cisco Private Internet Exchange (PIX) Firewall

Answer: A

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Practicetest 646-985 Cisco it-exams

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646-985 Data Center Networking Solution Sales our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
You work as the network administrator at Company.com. Which of the following is correct if using the Cisco VFrame DC as a data center provisioning device?

A. Cisco VFrame DC can work only with the Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
B. Cisco VFrame DC can provision only network resources.
C. Cisco VFrame DC can work with VMware.
D. Cisco VFrame DC can work with the Catalyst 6500 Series Switches and the Nexus 7000 Series Switches but not with MDS.

Answer: C


QUESTION 2
You work as a Cisco engineer at Company.com. With your judgement, in the highly competitive networking switch market, which of the following can Cisco make that the competition cannot?

A. 10 Gigabit Ethernet is available on all switches and line cards, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks..
B. Cisco has blade server switches for both data networking and storage networking requirements.
C. Cisco has a commitment to using Ethernet as the backbone connection system for the data center.
D. Cisco supports modular switches and top-of-rack switches for both Gigabit Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks.

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You work as a Cisco engineer at Company.com. With your experience, which of the following description is the most closely one corresponding to a data center manager?

A. Data center manager is an alternative title for the chief technology officer and the person is responsible for all technology decision making in the data center.
B. Data center manager is a nonexecutive role and title that is found in all data centers and that tends to be administrative rather than technical.
C. The data center manager has technology decision-making authority within the data center, but the network team makes technology decisions after the connection leaves the immediate data center environment.
D. A specific, named role of data center manager might not exist, but the function and technical decision-making role almost certainly does.

Answer: D

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642-741 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
What is the WMM user priority of the packets going downstream to the client when the client does not support TSPEC but the Cisco WLC has ACM enabled and WLAN priority is set to Platinum?

A. background
B. best effort
C. voice
D. video

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
When using simultaneous voice and multicast on a single WLAN and RF band, what is the recommended DTIM value of the WLAN for VoWLAN devices?

A. DTIM = 1
B. DTIM = 2
C. DTIM = 3
D. DTIM = 4

Answer: A


QUESTION 3
For which quality of service parameter should the WLAN for VoWLAN clients be configured?

A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Silver
D. Bronze

Answer: A

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642-746 Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Mobility Services our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
You have configured WLAN override on an AP to broadcast one out of three WLANs on the Cisco WLC. The Cisco WLC fails and the AP with WLAN override moves to the secondary Cisco WLC. What should you do to ensure that the same SSID is being advertised as before? Select the best response.

A. Wait for the primary Cisco WLC to come back and manually move the AP back to the primary
Cisco WLC.
B. Make sure the two Cisco WLCs are in the same RF group.
C. Make sure the management addresses of the Cisco WLCs are on separate VLANs.
D. Make sure the secondary Cisco WLC has the same SSID profile configured as the primary.
E. Make sure AP fallback is enabled on both Cisco WLCs.

Answer: D



QUESTION 2
A user walks from one building to another where each building has a Cisco WLC 4402 and 50 APs. However, the user does not get a new IP address from the second building's subnet. What is the reason for this behavior assuming all settings are at defaults? Select the best response.

A. User's DHCP release/renew interval has not timed-out yet.
B. Symmetric mobility tunneling is not enabled.
C. User idle-timeout has not expired yet, so this is considered as a roam.
D. User idle-timeout has expired, so this is considered as a roam.

Answer: C



QUESTION 3
Which port must be opened in the firewall if secure mobility tunneling is enabled between two controllers across a firewall?
Select the best response.

A. UDP 12222
B. UDP 16666
C. UDP 5246
D. UDP 16667
E. UDP 12223
F. UDP 5247

Answer: D

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Practicetest 642-813 Cisco it-exams

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642-813 Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements concerning STP state changes are true? (Choose two.)
A. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
B. Upon bootup, a port transitions from blocking to listening because it assumes itself as root.
C. Upon bootup, a port transitions from listening to forwarding because it assumes itself as root.
D. If a forwarding port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
E. If a forwarding port receives an inferior BPDU, it will transition to listening.
F. If a blocked port receives no BPDUs by the max_age time limit, it will transition to listening.
Answer: BF
Section: SpanningTree


QUESTION 2
In a customer's network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named
main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes
down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1
and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a
switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues on TEST1
could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Answer: CEF

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about RSTP topology changes?
A. Only nonedge ports moving to the blocking state generate a TC BPDU.
B. Any loss of connectivity generates a TC BPDU.
C. Any change in the state of the port generates a TC BPDU.
D. Only nonedge ports moving to the forwarding state generate a TC BPDU.
E. If either an edge port or a nonedge port moves to a block state, then a TC BPDU is generated.
Answer: D

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Alles klar!

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642-731 Conducting Cisco Unified Wireless Site Survey our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco antennas provide better isolation from RF sources that might be located behind the antennas?

A. AIR-ANT3213
B. AIR-ANT2465P-R
C. AIR-ANT1949
D. AIR-ANT5160V-R

Answer: BC


QUESTION 2
Which three formats can be used to import floor maps in Cisco WCS v5.2? (Choose three)

A. PNG
B. JPEG
C. GIF
D. BMP
E. PICT
F. TIFF

Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
Cisco recommends a decibel referenced to 1 milliwatt signal level for the coverage cell edge at the predetermined data rate that is needed to support the VoWLAN device and call capacity requirements. What is that signal level value for Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7920, 7921G, and 7925G?

A. -65 dBm
B. -67 dBm
C. -69 dBm
D. -70 dBm

Answer: B

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Practicetest 640-864 Cisco it-exams


640-864 Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
Which three of these describe the best practice for Cisco wireless outdoor Mesh network deployment? (Choose three.)

A. mesh hop counts of 4 or fewer
B. RAP implemented with 20 or fewer MAP nodes
C. client access via 802.11a and backhaul with 802.11b/g
D. client access via 802.11b/g and backhaul with 802.11a
E. mesh hop counts of 8 to 4
F. RAP implemented with 20 to 32 MAP nodes

Answer: ADF

Explanation/Reference:
Mesh Design Recommendations
The following are Cisco recommendations (and considerations) for mesh design:

Cisco Press CCDA 640-864 Official Certification Guide Fourth Edition, Chapter 5


QUESTION 2
The Cisco Data Center Network Architecture comprises which two Cisco SONA layers? (Choose two.)

A. Collaboration Applications
B. WAN/Internet
C. Interactive Services
D. Network Infrastructure
E. Business Applications

Answer: CD

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Explanation
The SONA framework denes the following three layers:
+ Networked Infrastructure layer: Where all the IT resources interconnect across a converged network foundation. The objective of this layer is to provide connectivity, anywhere and anytime. + Interactive Services layer: Includes both application networking services and infrastructure services. This layer enables efcient allocation of resources to applications and business processes delivered through the networked infrastructure.
+ Application layer: Includes business applications and collaboration applications. The objective of this layer is to meet business requirements and achieve efciencies by leveraging the Interactive Services layer.
With above information, you can answer question 2 and 3 below.


QUESTION 3
Which two of these are scalability benefits of designing a network that utilizes VPNs? (Choose two.)

A. reduces dial infrastructure expenditures
B. reduces the number of physical connections
C. allows networks to be set up and restructured quickly
D. simplifies the underlying structure of a customer WAN
E. extends the network to remote users

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What source and destination information can you find in the data link layer?
A. port number
B. IP address
C. URL
D. MAC address
Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two statements best describe Cisco PAT implementation? (Choose two.)
A. implemented to conserve public IP addresses
B. can only be used between a private network and the Internet
C. provides address connectivity between public and private addresses
D. requires at least two public addresses to operate
Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Install and configure three access points to cover a small office. Which one of the following
terms defines the wireless topology?
A. ESS
B. IBSS
C. SSID
D. BSS
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD



QUESTION 2
Assuming the default switch configuration, which VLAN range can be added, modified, and removed on a Cisco switch?

A. 1 through 1001
B. 2 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005

Answer: B



QUESTION 3
The ROUTE company has a small network. The network consists of one switch and one router. The switch has been configured with two VLANs. The router has been configured as a router-on- a-stick to allow inter-VLAN routing. A trunk is configured to connect the switch to the router. What is the minimum number of router subinterfaces that are required for all the VLANs to communicate?

A. zero
B. one
C. two
D. three

Answer: C

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Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams

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640-722 CCNA - Wireless Associate - IUWNE our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)

A. Results of Layers 1 - 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 - 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.

Answer: A,D


QUESTION NO: 2
When using Cisco WCS version 7.0, which two features are available for the client troubleshooting tool when a Cisco Compatible Extensions v5 wireless client gets connected? (Choose two.)

A. Request CleanAir reports from the client
B. Send text messages to the client
C. Aggregated Cisco ACS authentication client information
D. Request the client to ping the DHCP-supplied IP gateway
E. Display a summary of client event history

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 3
Which portion of a WLAN deployment can WLC message logs help to troubleshoot?
RF issues

A. encryption issues between APs and clients
B. configuration verification issues
C. infrastructure and client Issues
D. AP placement issues

Answer: D

Practicetest 640-722 Cisco it-exams

Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams

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640-802 Cisco Certified Network Associate(CCNA) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams


QUESTION 1
A network administrator receives an error message while trying to configure the Ethernet
interface of a router with IP address 10.24.24.24/29. Which statement explains the reason for
this issue?
A. This address is a broadcast address.
B. VLSM-capable routing protocols must be enabled first on the router.
C. The Ethernet interface is faulty.
D. This address is a network address.
Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic
Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# service password-encryption
C. Router(config)# password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption
Answer: B

Practicetest 640-802 Cisco it-exams

Yes, love is painful. Do you agree?

bad mood!!!

I don't want to hear any explanation.

Practicetest 312-49 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

312-49 EC-COUNCIL Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 312-49 EC-COUNCIL it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
In conducting a computer abuse investigation you become aware that the suspect of the
investigation is using ABC Company as his Internet Service Provider (ISP). You contact ISP and request that they provide you assistance with your investigation. What assistance can the ISP provide?

A. The ISP can investigate anyone using their service and can provide you with assistance
B. The ISP can investigate computer abuse committed by their employees, but must preserve the privacy of their customers and therefore cannot assist you without a warrant
C. The ISP can't conduct any type of investigations on anyone and therefore can't assist you
D. ISP's never maintain log files so they would be of no use to your investigation

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
You are assisting in the investigation of a possible Web Server Hack. The company who called you stated that customers reported to them that whenever they entered the web address of the company in their browser, what they received was a porno graphic web site. The company checked the web server and nothing appears wrong. When you type in the IP address of the web site in your browser everything appears normal. What is the name of the attack that affects the DNS cache of the name resolution servers, resulting in those servers directing users to the wrong web site?

A. ARP Poisoning
B. DNS Poisoning
C. HTTP redirect attack
D. IP Spoofing

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 3
You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems administrator for a local school system requesting your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer lab. When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC and put it on this drive and requests that you examine that drive for evidence of the suspected images. You inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future proceedings?

A. Bit-stream Copy
B. Robust Copy
C. Full backup Copy
D. Incremental Backup Copy

Answer: A

Practicetest 312-49 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

Practicetest 312-50 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

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312-50 Ethical Hacker Certified our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 312-50 EC-COUNCIL it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Bob has a good understanding of cryptography, having worked with it for many years.
Cryptography is used to secure data from specific threats but it does not secure the data
from the specific threats but it does no secure the application from coding errors. It can
provide data privacy; integrity and enable strong authentication but it can’t mitigate
programming errors. What is a good example of a programming error that Bob can use to
explain to the management how encryption will not address all their security concerns?
A. Bob can explain that using a weak key management technique is a form of programming error
B. Bob can explain that using passwords to derive cryptographic keys is a form of a programming error
C. Bob can explain that a buffer overflow is an example of programming error and it is a common mistake associated with poor programming technique
D. Bob can explain that a random number generation can be used to derive cryptographic keys but it uses a weak seed value and this is a form of a programming error

Answer: C

Explanation:
In computer security and programming, a buffer overflow, or buffer overrun, is a
programming error which may result in a memory access exception and program termination, or in the event of the user being malicious, a possible breach of system security.



QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program
from buffer overflow attacks?
A. strcpy()
B. strcat()
C. streadd()
D. strscock()

Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
When hunting buffer overflows, the first thing to look for is functions which write into
arrays without any way to know the amount of space available. If you get to define the function, you can pass a length parameter in, or ensure that every array you ever pass to it is at least as big as the hard-coded maximum amount it will write. If you're using a function someone else (like, say, the compiler vendor) has provided then avoiding functions like gets(), which take some amount of data over which you have no control and stuff it into arrays they can never know the size of, is a good start. Make sure that functions like the str...() family which expect NUL-terminated strings actually get them - store a '\0' in the last element of each array involved just before you call the
function, if necessary. Strscock() is not a valid C/C++ function.


QUESTION NO: 3
An attacker runs netcat tool to transfer a secret file between two hosts.
Machine A: netcat -1 –p 1234 < secretfile
Machine B: netcat 192.168.3.4 > 1234
He is worried about information being sniffed on the network.
How would the attacker use netcat to encrypt information before transmitting it on the
wire?
A. Machine A: netcat -1 –p –s password 1234 < testfile
Machine B: netcat 1234
B. Machine A: netcat -1 –e magickey –p 1234 < testfile
Machine B: netcat 1234
C. Machine A: netcat -1 –p 1234 < testfile –pw password
Machine B: netcat 1234 –pw password
D. Use cryptcat instead of netcat.

Answer: D

Practicetest 312-50 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

Practicetest 312-50v7 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

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Practicetest 312-50v7 EC-COUNCIL it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
SSL has been seen as the solution to a lot of common security problems. Administrator will often time make use of SSL to encrypt communications from points A to point B. Why do you think this could be a bad idea if there is an Intrusion Detection System deployed to monitor the traffic between point A and B?
A. SSL is redundant if you already have IDS's in place
B. SSL will trigger rules at regular interval and force the administrator to turn them off
C. SSL will slow down the IDS while it is breaking the encryption to see the packet content
D. SSL will blind the content of the packet and Intrusion Detection Systems will not be able to detect them

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
Jake is a network administrator who needs to get reports from all the computer and network devices on his network. Jake wants to use SNMP but is afraid that won't be secure since passwords and messages are in clear text. How can Jake gather network information in a secure manner?
A. He can use SNMPv3
B. Jake can use SNMPrev5
C. He can use SecWMI
D. Jake can use SecSNMP

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
June, a security analyst, understands that a polymorphic virus has the ability to mutate and can change its known viral signature and hide from signature-based antivirus programs. Can June use an antivirus program in this case and would it be effective against a polymorphic virus?
A. Yes. June can use an antivirus program since it compares the parity bit of executable files to the database of known check sum counts and it is effective on a polymorphic virus
B. Yes. June can use an antivirus program since it compares the signatures of executable files to the database of known viral signatures and it is very effective against a polymorphic virus
C. No. June can't use an antivirus program since it compares the signatures of executable files to the database of known viral signatures and in the case the polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by a signature-based anti-virus program
D. No. June can't use an antivirus program since it compares the size of executable files to the database of known viral signatures and it is effective on a polymorphic virus

Answer: C

Practicetest 312-50v7 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

Practicetest 412-79 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

412-79 EC-Council Certified Security Analyst (ECSA) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 412-79 EC-COUNCIL it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Frank is working on a vulnerability assessment for a company on the West coast. The company hired Frank to assess its network security through scanning, pen tests, and vulnerability assessments. After discovering numerous known vulnerabilities detected by a temporary IDS he set up, he notices a number of items that show up as unknown but questionable in the logs. He looks up the behavior on the Internet, but cannot find anything related. What organization should Frank submit the log to find out if it is a new vulnerability or not?
A. CVE
B. IANA
C. RIPE
D. APIPA

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer A is the correct answer. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) is a dictionary of publically known vulnerabilities and exposure maintained by Mitre.


QUESTION NO: 2
George is a senior security analyst working for a state agency in Florida. His state's congress just passed a bill mandating every state agency to undergo a security audit annually. After learning what will be required, George needs to implement an IDS as soon as possible before the first audit occurs. The state bill requires that an IDS with a "time-based induction machine" be used. What IDS feature must George implement to meet this requirement?
A. Pattern matching
B. Statistical-based anomaly detection
C. Real-time anomaly detection
D. Signature-based anomaly detection

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Software firewalls work at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Data Link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application

Answer: A

Practicetest 412-79 EC-COUNCIL it-exams

Practicetest 250-309 Symantec it-exams

250-309 Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 250-309 Symantec it-exams


QUESTION 1
In which locations must auditing be enabled?

A. Directory and Policy
B. Site and Enterprise Vault Server
C. Directory and Site
D. Directory and Enterprise Vault Server

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What is the minimum indexing level that supports phrase searching?

A. Brief
B. Medium
C. Full
D. All

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
When a Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) alert reaches its threshold level, EV 9 writes an entry in the Event Log. EV 9 writes the alert to which other location?

A. EV Audit database
B. EV Trace logs
C. EV Status
D. EV Operations reports

Answer: C

Practicetest 250-309 Symantec it-exams

Practicetest 250-316 Symantec it-exams

250-316 Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2012 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.
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Practicetest 250-316 Symantec it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two are required to correctly configure a Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)

A. Only Fully Qualified Domain Names can be used for all servers.
B. Only the NetBIOS name can be used for all servers.
C. Servers must all be on the same subnet.
D. Servers must be part of a domain.
E. Servers must all be in the same time zone.

Answer: B,D


QUESTION NO: 2
Which two rights does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 assign to the Symantec Backup Exec Service Account during installation? (Select two.)

A. log on as a service
B. start, restart, or stop Symantec Backup Exec services
C. create a token object
D. alter file system objects
E. manage operator rights

Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 3
Which operation is available with legacy backup-to-disk folders when upgrading to Symantec Backup Exec 2012?

A. allows storing data back to the folder
B. allows reading and writing to the folder
C. allows only reading data from the folder
D. allows writing to the folder

Answer: C

Practicetest 250-316 Symantec it-exams

Practicetest 310-019 SUN it-exams

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310-019 Sun Certified Associate.Java Platform.Se. Exam Version 1.0 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 310-019 SUN it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Which two are true? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.servlet package contains part of the servlet API.
B. A servlet is an open source framework developed for creating web applications.
C. A servlet is a Java class that executes within a web container.
D. A servlet is a Java class that executes within a web browser.
E. The servlet API is included in J2SE.
Answer: A,C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which two are true about JavaScript and HTML? (Choose two.)
A. HTML is displayed in a client-side environment.
B. JavaScript must be deployed in a separate file from HTML.
C. JavaScript runs only in a server-side environment.
D. JavaScript has a function that can open a new browser window.
Answer: A,D


QUESTION NO: 3
You are asked to create a Dog class that exposes the Dog class String name and int breed to
other code as read-only attributes, provides encapsulation, and adheres to the standard
JavaBeans naming conventions.
Which approach implements these requirements?
A. Provide public name() and public breed() methods in the Dog class, and mark the name and
breed instance variables private.
B. Provide private getName() and private getBreed() methods in the Dog class, and mark the
name and breed instance variables
private.
C. Provide public getName() and public getBreed() methods in the Dog class, and mark the name
and breed instance variables private.
D. Provide private name() and private breed() methods in the Dog class, and mark the name and
breed instance variables public.
E. Provide public getName()/setName() and public getBreed()/setBreed() methods in the Dog
class, and mark the name and breed
instance variables private.
Answer: C

Practicetest 310-019 SUN it-exams

Practicetest 200-530 Zend it-exams

200-530 Zend PHP 5.3 Certification our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 200-530 Zend it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
You work for a shared hosting provider, and your supervisor asks you to disable user scripts to dynamically load PHP extensions using the dl() function. How can you do this? (Choose 2)
A. Set enable_dl to Off in the server's php.ini configuration file.
B. Add dl to the current value of disable_functions in the server's php.ini configuration file.
C. Add dl to the current value of disable_classes in the server's php.ini configuration file.
D. Write a custom function called dl(), save it under the name prepend.inc and then set the auto_prepend_file directive to prepend.inc in php.ini.

Answer: A,B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) Class constants are public
b) Class constants are being inherited
c) Class constants can omit initialization (default to NULL)
d) Class constants can be initialized by consts

A. a)
B. b)
C. c)
D. d)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Type hinting in PHP allows the identification of the following variable types: (Choose 2)

A. String
B. Integer
C. Array
D. Any class or interface type

Answer: C,D

Practicetest 200-530 Zend it-exams

Practicetest 220-701 CompTIA it-exams

220-701 CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 220-701 CompTIA it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A customer has asked for the ability to operate dual digital monitors. Which of the following is the BEST solution for accomplishing this?

A. Split the onboard video port.
B. Update the video drivers to allow for multiple monitors.
C. Add an adaptor to the onboard VGA port.
D. Install a video card with multiple DVI ports.

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 2
A user is trying to use Remote Desktop to connect to another computer on the LAN. The
connection fails. The technician opens up a command prompt and types the following: “telnet computernamE. 3389” and also gets the same error message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this error, assuming that the OS firewall has been disabled?

A. The antivirus software is blocking the incoming connection.
B. The ISP is blocking Remote Desktop at their end.
C. The RDP connection has been configured to use a non-standard port.
D. The telnet service has not been installed.

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the correct arrangement of the data pairs in a T568B wire pattern? (Select TWO).

A. Orange & orange/white on pins 1 & 2
B. Blue & blue/white on pins 4 & 5
C. Orange & orange/white on pins 4 & 5
D. Brown & brown/white on pins 1 & 2
E. Green & green/white on pins 3 & 6

Answer: A,E

Practicetest 220-701 CompTIA it-exams

Practicetest 220-702 CompTIA it-exams

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Practicetest 220-702 CompTIA it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
A technician is replacing a processor in a workstation. After installation, the workstation starts up and immediately shuts down; the technician tries to start the workstation several more times and gets the same result. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

A. The workstation is not plugged in.
B. The thermal paste was not applied.
C. The memory was not installed properly.
D. The L2 cache was not cleared.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?

A. 478
B. 939
C. 1366
D. AM2+

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is an advantage of installing a 64-bit processor versus a 32-bit processor?

A. Uses less bandwidth on the front side bus
B. Only requires half of the clock speed
C. Able to access a larger amount of RAM memory
D. Able to be used as two 32-bit processors

Answer: C

Practicetest 220-702 CompTIA it-exams

Practicetest 156-215.71 CheckPoint it-exams

156-215.71 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71 our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 156-215.71 CheckPoint it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
All R71 Security Servers can perform authentication with the exception of one. Which of the Security Servers cannot perform authentication?
A. RLOGIN
B. HTTP
C. SMTP
D. FTP

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following are authentication methods that Security Gateway R71 uses to validate connection attempts? Select the response below that includes the MOST complete list of valid authentication methods.
A. Proxied, User, Dynamic, Session
B. Connection, User, Client
C. User, Client, Session
D. Connection, Proxied, Session

Answer: C


QUESTION NO: 3
Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the response below that contains the MOST complete list of supported services.
A. FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B. FTP, TELNET
C. SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D. SMTP, FTP, TELNET

Answer: A

Practicetest 156-215.71 CheckPoint it-exams

Practicetest 156-215.75 CheckPoint it-exams

156-215.75 Check Point Certified Security Administrator our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 156-215.75 CheckPoint it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
You receive a notification that long-lasting Telnet connections to a mainframe are dropped after an hour of inactivity. Reviewing SmartView Tracker shows the packet is dropped with the error:
"Unknown established connection"
How do you resolve this problem without causing other security issues? Choose the BEST
answer.

A. Increase the service-based session timeout of the default Telnet service to 24-hours.
B. Create a new TCP service object on port 23 called Telnet-mainframe. Define a service-based session Timeout of 24-hours. Use this new object only in the rule that allows the Telnet connections to the mainframe.
C. Ask the mainframe users to reconnect every time this error occurs.
D. Increase the TCP session timeout under Global Properties > Stateful Inspection.

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
Which SmartConsole tool would you use to see the last policy pushed in the audit log?

A. SmartView Tracker
B. None, SmartConsole applications only communicate with the Security Management Server.
C. SmartView Status
D. SmartView Server

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
SmartView Tracker logs the following Security Administrator activities, EXCEPT:

A. Administrator login and logout
B. Object creation, deletion, and editing
C. Tracking SLA compliance
D. Rule Base changes

Answer: C

Practicetest 156-215.75 CheckPoint it-exams

Practicetest 156-315.75 CheckPoint it-exams

156-315.75 Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R75 (156-315-75) our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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Practicetest 156-315.75 CheckPoint it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
What port is used for communication to the UserCenter with SmartUpdate?

A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. TCP 8080
D. CPMI

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
What physical machine must have access to the UserCenter public IP when checking for new packages with SmartUpdate?

A. VPN-1 Security Gateway getting the new upgrade package
B. SmartUpdate installed SmartCenter Server PC
C. SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
D. SmartUpdate GUI PC

Answer: D


QUESTION NO: 3
What action CANNOT be run from SmartUpdate NGX R65?

A. Get all Gateway Data
B. Reboot gateway
C. Preinstall verifier?
D. Fetch sync status

Answer: D

Practicetest 156-315.75 CheckPoint it-exams

Practicetest 190-956 Lotus it-exams

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190-956 IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 System Administration Update our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 190-956 Lotus it-exams


QUESTION NO: 1
Carl, the Domino administrator, wishes to migrate users to dynamic policies in his Domino
environment. Which of the following will occur when he completes this task?
A. Groups with each policy name are created, and users are assigned to the new group policies
B. Users are added to policy documents, and applied policies are removed from their person document
C. Policies are added to the necessary person documents, and document links are assigned to the policy documents
D. Policies are removed from the users entirely until theyreauthenticate and the new dynamic policies are applied

Answer: B


QUESTION NO: 2
While upgrading his Domino servers to 8.5, Clint is considering utilizing the Domino Attachment and Object Service. He has not migrated all of his databases to the new on-disk structure (ODS), however, so the option is not available. Which of the following steps can he perform to prepare them for DAOS?
A. He can pre-enable them for consolidation
B. He can create a program document to enable the feature
C. He can change the file extension of the databases to .ns8
D. He can create an Administration Process request that will process only when the databases are upgraded

Answer: A


QUESTION NO: 3
Domino roaming for the Notes standard configuration clients in Domino 8.5 and higher offers the ability to synchronize which of the following?
A. A notebook database and user ID file
B. The user ID file and local Eclipse XML configuration files
C. A feeds subscription database and an Eclipse plug-in data and preferences database
D. The Activities plug-in configuration and the integratedSametime Connect configurations

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the bash built-in export command
A. To allow disks to be mounted remotely
B. To run a command as a process in a sub-shell
C. To make the command history available to sub-shells
D. To setup environment variables for applications
E. To share NFS partitions for use by other systems on the network

Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
From the man pages:
export -p The supplied names are marked for automatic export to the environment of subsequently executed commands. If the -f option is given, the names refer to functions. If no names are given, or if the -p option is supplied, a list of all names that are exported in this shell is printed. The -n option causes the export property to be removed from each name. If a variable name is followed by =word, the value of the variable is set to word.


QUESTION 2
Your /etc/passwd file appears to have approximately half shadow passwords and half standard unix excrypted passwords. What utility would you most likely run to fix this?
A. pwconv
B. passconvert
C. useradd -conv
D. pwhash
E. passwd -fix

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
From the man pages:
The pwconv command creates shadow from passwd and an optionally existing shadow.


QUESTION 3
Where are the default settings for the useradd command kept?
A. /etc/default/useradd
B. /etc/.useradd
C. /etc/defauls/useradd
D. /etc/sysconfig/useradd.cfg

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What backup arrangement should be used for an intranet web server the contents of which is updated fairly regularly by different staff?
A. Daily incremental backups with a weekly full backup tape sent off- site
B. Monthly full backups with the tape sent off-site
C. Daily full backups with all tapes sent off-site
D. Weekly full backups with all tapes sent off-site
E. Daily full backups with one tape sent off-site per week

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Daily full backup for only fairly regularly updated data seems a bit overkill, so just do daily incrementals and weekly full backup to be on the safe side.


QUESTION 2
During which stage of the boot process would this message be seen?
Ide0: BM-DMA at 0xff00-0xff07, BIOS settings: hda:DMA, hdb:DMA
A. Boot loader start and hand off to kernel
B. Kernel loading
C. Hardware initialization and setup
D. Daemon initialization and setup

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is a significant difference between host and zone keys generated by dnssec-keygen?
A. There is no difference.
B. Zone key files contain a public and private key.
C. Host keys files contain a public and private key.
D. Host keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; zone keys are optional
E. Zone keys must always be generated if DNSSEC is used; host keys are optional

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Select the TWO correct statements about the following excerpt from httpd.conf:


Order allow, deny
Deny from all


A. The configuration will deny access to /var/web/dir1/private.html,
/var/web/dirl/subdir2/private.html, /var/web/dirl/subdir3/private.html and any other instance of private.html found under the /var/web/dir1/directory.
B. The configuration will deny access to /var/web/dir1/private.html, but it will allow access to /var/web/dirl/subdir2/private.htm1, for example.
C. The configuration will allow access to any file named private.html under /var/web/dir1, but it will deny access to any other files
D. The configuration will allow access just to the file named private.html under /var/web/dir1
E. The configuration will allow access to /var/web/private.html, if it exists

Answer: A,E



QUESTION NO: 2
Considering the following excerpt from the httpd.conf file, select the correct answer below:

AllowOverride AuthConfig Indexes

A. The Indexes directive in the excerpt allows the use of other index-related directives such as DirectoryIndex
B. Both directives AuthConfig and Indexes found in the server's .htaccess file will be overridden by the same directives found in the httpd.conf file
C. The AuthConfig used in the excerpt allows the use of other authentication-related directives such as AuthType
D. The excerpt is incorrect, as the AllowOverride cannot be used with Indexes, since the latter cannot be overridden
E. The excerpt is incorrect, because AllowOverride cannot be used inside a Location section

Answer: E


QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following lines in the Apache configuration file would allow only clients with a valid certificate to access the website?
A. SSLCA conf/ca.crt
B. AuthType ssl
C. IfModule libexec/ssl.c
D. SSLRequire
E. SSLVerifyClient require

Answer: E

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